A nurse is assessing a client after administering phenytoin IV bolus for a seizure. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

Bradycardia.

Red man syndrome.

Hypotension.

Hypoglycemia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that can cause hypotension as an adverse effect when administered intravenously. The nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure and heart rate during and after the infusion.

Choice A is wrong because phenytoin does not cause bradycardia. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate that can result from beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin toxicity.

Choice B is wrong because red man syndrome is an adverse reaction to vancomycin, not phenytoin.

Red man syndrome is characterized by flushing, itching, and rash on the face, neck, and upper torso.

Choice D is wrong because phenytoin does not cause hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is a low blood glucose level that can result from insulin overdose, excessive exercise, or inadequate food intake.

Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg. Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute. Normal ranges for blood glucose are 70 to 110 mg/dL.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Hot flashes are a common side effect of tamoxifen, which is hormone therapy for breast cancer that blocks the action of estrogen.

Tamoxifen can cause menopause-like symptoms in women, such as irregular or missing periods, vaginal discharge or bleeding, and mood changes. Choice A is wrong because tinnitus (ringing in the ears) is not a known side effect of tamoxifen.

Choice C is wrong because urinary frequency (needing to urinate more often) is not a known side effect of tamoxifen.

Choice D is wrong because constipation (difficulty passing stools) is not a known side effect of tamoxifen.

A. Dominant antecubital basilic vein. B. Nondominant dorsal venous arch. C. Dominant distal dorsal vein. D. Nondominant forearm basilic vein

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

This site is preferred for peripheral IV catheter placement because it is comfortable, has good blood flow, and has a lower risk of complications than the dominant arm or the antecubital fossa.

Choice A is wrong because the dominant antecubital basilic vein is more prone to dislodgement, thrombosis, and thrombophlebitis due to frequent movement of the elbow joint.

Choice B is wrong because the nondominant dorsal venous arch is a distal site that may have poor blood flow and higher resistance to infusion. It should be avoided unless there are no other options.

Choice C is wrong because the dominant distal dorsal vein is also a distal site that may have poor blood flow and higher resistance to infusion. It should be avoided unless there are no other options.

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A nurse is assessing a client after administering phenytoin IV bolus for a seizure. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking tamoxifen to treat breast cancer. The nurse should identify which of the following manifestations as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is preparing to initiate IV therapy for a client. Which of the following sites should the nurse use to place the peripheral IV catheter?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is discussing adverse reactions to pain medications in older adult clients with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as risk factors for an adverse drug reaction? (Select all that apply)

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