A nurse is assessing a client after administering phenytoin IV bolus for a seizure. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?
Bradycardia.
Red man syndrome.
Hypotension.
Hypoglycemia.
The Correct Answer is C
Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that can cause hypotension as an adverse effect when administered intravenously. The nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure and heart rate during and after the infusion.
Choice A is wrong because phenytoin does not cause bradycardia. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate that can result from beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin toxicity.
Choice B is wrong because red man syndrome is an adverse reaction to vancomycin, not phenytoin.
Red man syndrome is characterized by flushing, itching, and rash on the face, neck, and upper torso.
Choice D is wrong because phenytoin does not cause hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is a low blood glucose level that can result from insulin overdose, excessive exercise, or inadequate food intake.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg. Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute. Normal ranges for blood glucose are 70 to 110 mg/dL.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Raloxifene is a medication used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
Osteoporosis is a condition that causes bones to become thin and weak, increasing the risk of fractures.
Raloxifene belongs to a class of drugs called selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs), which mimic the effects of estrogen on bone density. Choice B is wrong because raloxifene may increase the risk of deep-vein thrombosis (DVT), a type of blood clot that forms in a vein deep in the body. DVT can cause pain, swelling, and redness in the affected limb, and can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE), a blood clot in the lung.
Raloxifene should not be used by people who have or had DVT or PE. Choice C is wrong because raloxifene is not used to treat urinary tract infection (UTI), an infection that affects the bladder, kidneys, or ureters. UTI can cause symptoms such as burning or pain when urinating, frequent or urgent urination, blood in the urine, or fever.
UTI is usually treated with antibiotics.
Choice D is wrong because raloxifene is not used to treat hypothyroidism, a condition that occurs when the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone.
Thyroid hormone regulates the body’s metabolism, growth, and development. Hypothyroidism can cause symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, dry skin, hair loss, or depression.
Hypothyroidism is usually treated with synthetic thyroid hormone replacement.
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
Older adults are at higher risk of adverse drug reactions due to multiple health problems, polypharmacy, and decreased renal function.
These factors can affect the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of pain medications and increase the likelihood of drug interactions, overdosage, or toxicity.
Choice A is wrong because the decreased percentage of body fat does not increase the risk of adverse drug reactions in older adults.
In fact, an increased percentage of body fat can alter the distribution and elimination of some drugs.
Choice C is wrong because an increased rate of absorption does not increase the risk of adverse drug reactions in older adults.
In fact, decreased rate of absorption can occur due to reduced gastric motility and blood flow.
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