A nurse is planning to administer medications to an older adult client who has dysphagia.
Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Mix the medications with a semisolid food for the client.
Administer more than one pill to the client at a time.
Place the medications on the back of the client’s tongue.
Tilt the client’s head back when administering the medications.
The Correct Answer is A
The nurse should plan to take the following action:
A) Mix the medications with a semisolid food for the client.
Mixing the medications with a semisolid food, such as applesauce or pudding, can make it easier for an older adult client with dysphagia to swallow the medications safely. It helps in reducing the risk of choking and aspiration. This approach is typically used for clients who have difficulty swallowing pills.
Options B, C, and D are not recommended for a client with dysphagia:
B) Administering more than one pill at a time can increase the risk of choking and aspiration, which should be avoided.
C) Placing medications on the back of the client's tongue can also lead to difficulty swallowing and an increased risk of aspiration.
D) Tilting the client's head back when administering medications is not recommended as it can lead to aspiration. The head should be kept in a neutral position to support safe swallowing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The client has a negative sputum culture. This indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen because a negative sputum culture means that the client is no longer infectious and has cleared the tuberculosis bacteria from their lungs.
Choice A is wrong because testing negative for HIV does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. HIV testing is not related to tuberculosis treatment.
Choice C is wrong because having a positive purified protein derivative test does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
A positive PPD test means that the client has been exposed to tuberculosis, but it does not indicate whether the client has an active or latent infection. Choice D is wrong because having liver function test results within the expected reference range does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
Liver function tests are used to monitor for possible adverse effects of isoniazid and rifampin, which can cause hepatotoxicity, but they do not reflect the effectiveness of the treatment.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that can cause hypotension as an adverse effect when administered intravenously. The nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure and heart rate during and after the infusion.
Choice Ais wrong because phenytoin does not cause bradycardia. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate that can result from beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin toxicity.
Choice B is wrong because red man syndrome is an adverse reaction to vancomycin, not phenytoin.
Red man syndrome is characterized by flushing, itching, and rash on the face, neck, and upper torso.
Choice Dis wrong because phenytoin does not cause hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is a low blood glucose level that can result from insulin overdose, excessive exercise, or inadequate food intake.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg. Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute. Normal ranges for blood glucose are 70 to 110 mg/dL.
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