A nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with anemia related to gastrointestinal (61) bleeding. Which prescription would the nurse expect at discharge?

Warfarin

Vitamin D supplements

Iron supplements

Zidovudine

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Warfarin is an anticoagulant and could worsen bleeding; it is contraindicated in GI bleeding cases.

B. Vitamin D is essential for bone health but does not directly treat anemia.

C. Iron supplements are commonly prescribed for anemia due to GI bleeding because chronic blood loss leads to iron deficiency. Iron supplementation helps replenish iron stores necessary for RBC production.

D. Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used for HIV treatment and is unrelated to anemia from GI bleeding.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Collecting saliva samples does not pose a high risk, as HIV is not transmitted through saliva.

B. Occupational therapists generally do not have exposure to body fluids in a way that increases HIV risk.

C. Personal trainers do not have exposure to clients’ blood or body fluids in a way that increases transmission risk.

D. A phlebotomist handling blood samples has the highest risk of occupational exposure to HIV, particularly through needlestick injuries or improper handling of blood specimens.

A. Increase oxygen to 6 liters per minute. B. Administer PRN Morphine Sulfate IV push for pain. C. Request an order for a PRN antihypertensive medication. D. Begin administering prescribed IV fluids.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. The client’s SpO2 is already at 97%, so increasing oxygen is unnecessary. Oxygen is only required if hypoxia is present.

B. Pain management is the priority in vaso-occlusive crisis. Severe pain leads to stress, increasing oxygen demand and worsening sickling. IV opioids (e.g., morphine) are the standard treatment.

C. The BP is elevated but not critically high, and pain-related stress may be contributing. Treating pain first is the priority.

D. IV fluids help with hydration and reducing sickling, but pain management should be addressed first to provide immediate relief.

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A nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with anemia related to gastrointestinal (61) bleeding. Which prescription would the nurse expect at discharge?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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