A nurse is assessing a client who has Graves’ disease. The nurse should expect which of the following laboratory results?

Decreased thyroxine (T4) level.

Decreased triiodothyronine (T3) level.

Decreased thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSI) percentage.

Decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A Reason:

A decreased thyroxine (T4) level is not expected in a client with Graves’ disease. Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disorder that leads to hyperthyroidism, where the thyroid gland produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones, including T4. Therefore, the T4 level is typically elevated, not decreased.

Choice B Reason:

Similarly, a decreased triiodothyronine (T3) level is not expected in Graves’ disease. Like T4, T3 levels are usually elevated due to the overactive thyroid gland. T3 is the active form of thyroid hormone and is often increased in hyperthyroid conditions.

Choice C Reason:

Decreased thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSI) percentage is incorrect. In Graves’ disease, TSI levels are elevated because these antibodies stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more thyroid hormones. TSI mimics the action of TSH, leading to increased production of T3 and T4.

Choice D Reason:

Decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is the correct answer. In Graves’ disease, the excessive thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) exert negative feedback on the pituitary gland, leading to suppressed TSH production. Therefore, TSH levels are typically low in patients with Graves’ disease.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: A 22-year-old client with asthma is considered a priority for pneumonia vaccination. Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that can increase the risk of complications from pneumonia. Vaccination helps protect against pneumococcal infections, which can be particularly severe in individuals with underlying respiratory conditions.

Choice B reason: A healthy 72-year-old client is also a priority for pneumonia vaccination. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends pneumococcal vaccination for all adults aged 65 years and older. Older adults are at higher risk for pneumococcal disease due to age-related decline in immune function.

Choice C reason: A client with well-controlled diabetes should be prioritized for pneumonia vaccination. Diabetes can weaken the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections, including pneumonia. Vaccination is an important preventive measure for individuals with chronic health conditions.

Choice D reason: A client who is taking medication for hypertension is not necessarily a priority for pneumonia vaccination based solely on their hypertension. While hypertension is a common condition, it does not directly increase the risk of pneumococcal disease. However, if the client has other risk factors or comorbidities, they may still be considered for vaccination.

Choice E reason: A client who had a cholecystectomy last year is not a priority for pneumonia vaccination based on this surgical history alone. A cholecystectomy, which is the removal of the gallbladder, does not increase the risk of pneumococcal disease. Priority for vaccination is typically given to individuals with chronic health conditions, older adults, and those with weakened immune systems.

A. Heart rate B. Respiratory rate C. Heart rhythm D. Cardiac output

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: Monitoring the heart rate is crucial when administering amiodarone, as this drug can cause bradycardia (a slower than normal heart rate). Amiodarone affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, and close monitoring helps ensure that the heart rate remains within a safe range. The normal resting heart rate for adults is typically between 60 and 100 beats per minute.

Choice B reason: Respiratory rate monitoring is essential because amiodarone can cause pulmonary toxicity, which may manifest as interstitial pneumonitis or pulmonary fibrosis. Early detection of respiratory changes can help prevent severe complications. The normal respiratory rate for adults is 12 to 20 breaths per minute.

Choice C reason: Monitoring heart rhythm is necessary because amiodarone is used to treat arrhythmias, and it can also cause new arrhythmias or exacerbate existing ones. Continuous ECG monitoring helps detect any abnormal rhythms early, allowing for prompt intervention. Normal sinus rhythm is characterized by a regular rhythm with a rate of 60 to 100 beats per minute.

Choice D reason: Cardiac output monitoring is important because amiodarone can affect the contractility of the heart and overall cardiac function. Cardiac output is a measure of the amount of blood the heart pumps in one minute, and it is crucial for ensuring adequate tissue perfusion. Normal cardiac output ranges from 4 to 8 liters per minute in adults.

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A nurse is assessing a client who has Graves’ disease. The nurse should expect which of the following laboratory results?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing pneumonia vaccinations in a community setting. Due to limited finances, the event organizers must limit giving the vaccination to priority groups. What clients would be considered a priority when administering the pneumonia vaccination? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]

Explanation

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]

Explanation

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