A nurse is assessing a client who is in labor.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Decrease in WBC count.
Decrease in blood glucose level.
Decrease in respiratory rate.
Decrease in temperature.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
During labor, the body experiences physiological stress, which typically causes an increase, not a decrease, in white blood cell (WBC) count. This increase is a normal response to stress.
Choice B rationale
Blood glucose levels can decrease during labor due to the energy expenditure and physiological demands of the process. This is why it is important to monitor glucose levels and provide necessary interventions if hypoglycemia occurs.
Choice C rationale
The respiratory rate generally increases during labor to meet the increased oxygen demands of the body. A decrease in respiratory rate is not expected during this time.
Choice D rationale
Body temperature may increase slightly during labor due to the physical exertion and metabolic activity involved. A decrease in temperature is not a typical finding during labor. .
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A positive finding for galactosemia, not PKU, indicates the inability to metabolize galactose. Galactosemia is a different metabolic disorder that requires a separate dietary intervention.
Choice B rationale
A positive PKU test does not indicate slow metabolism. Instead, it signifies the inability to metabolize phenylalanine, an amino acid.
Choice C rationale
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a genetic disorder that leads to the inability to break down the amino acid phenylalanine. Without proper management, it can accumulate in the body and cause brain damage and other health issues.
Choice D rationale
A positive PKU test is not directly linked to an increased risk for neurological anomalies in general. The specific issue in PKU is the inability to metabolize certain amino acids, primarily phenylalanine, which can cause neurological damage if untreated. .
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cesarean birth is not necessarily required for GBS-positive clients as long as IV antibiotic prophylaxis is administered during labor to prevent transmission to the newborn.
Choice B rationale
IV antibiotic prophylaxis, typically with penicillin or ampicillin, is given to GBS-positive clients during labor to prevent neonatal GBS infection.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a vaginal culture at 39 weeks of gestation is not necessary if the client was already screened and found positive for GBS at 36 weeks.
Choice D rationale
Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis, not GBS infection; thus, it is not appropriate for this scenario. .
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