A nurse is discussing adverse reactions to pain medications in older adult clients with a newly licensed nurse.
Which of the following findings should the nurse include as risk factors for an adverse drug reaction? (Select all that apply)
Decreased percentage of body fat.
Multiple health problems.
Increased rate of absorption.
Polypharmacy.
Decreased renal function.
Correct Answer : B,D,E
Older adults are at higher risk of adverse drug reactions due to multiple health problems, polypharmacy, and decreased renal function.
These factors can affect the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of pain medications and increase the likelihood of drug interactions, overdosage, or toxicity.
Choice A is wrong because the decreased percentage of body fat does not increase the risk of adverse drug reactions in older adults.
In fact, an increased percentage of body fat can alter the distribution and elimination of some drugs.
Choice C is wrong because an increased rate of absorption does not increase the risk of adverse drug reactions in older adults.
In fact, decreased rate of absorption can occur due to reduced gastric motility and blood flow.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct sequence for mixing regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe is important to ensure proper dosing. The nurse should follow these steps:
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Inject air into the NPH (intermediate-acting) insulin vial: Injecting air into the NPH vial first helps to equalize the pressure in the vial, making it easier to withdraw the insulin later. This step is done first to avoid contaminating the regular insulin vial with NPH insulin.
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Inject air into the regular insulin vial: Next, inject an amount of air equal to the intended regular insulin dose into the regular insulin vial.This also helps to equalize the pressure and makes it easier to withdraw the insulin.
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Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial: The nurse should withdraw the regular insulin first because it is clear and not contaminated. This prevents any NPH insulin from mixing into the regular insulin vial.
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Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial: Finally, the nurse withdraws the NPH insulin. Since the regular insulin has already been drawn up, there is no risk of contaminating the regular insulin with NPH insulin.
This sequence ensures that you don't contaminate the vials, and you accurately withdraw the appropriate doses of each insulin type.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation is:
d. Apply a warm, moist compress.
Here's why the other options are not recommended:
- a. Initiate a new IV distal to the initial site:This is not the first course of action. While starting a new IV might be necessary eventually, it's crucial to address the issue at the current site first.
- b. Slow the IV solution rate:Slowing the rate doesn't directly address the coolness and edema, which indicate potential infiltration or extravasation.
- c. Maintain the extremity below the level of the heart:This action would actually worsen the edema by promoting fluid accumulation at the site.
Applying a warm, moist compress can help promote absorption of any leaked fluid and improve circulation at the site. However, it's important to remember that this is just one step in the process. The nurse should also:
- Stop the IV infusion.
- Assess the extent of the infiltration or extravasation.
- Document the findings.
- Elevate the affected extremity.
- Consult with a physician for further instructions and potential treatment.
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