A nurse is assessing a client who is to undergo a left lobectomy to treat lung cancer. The client tells the nurse that she is scared and wishes she had never smoked. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"Your doctor is a great surgeon. You will be fine."
"You may feel scared. Let's talk about what you are afraid of."
"I understand your fears. I was a smoker also."
"Don't worry. The important thing is you have now quit smoking."
The Correct Answer is B
This response is empathetic and therapeutic, as it acknowledges the client's feelings and invites her to express her concerns. It also shows respect and interest in the client's perspective.
a) This response is false reassurance and nontherapeutic, as it dismisses the client's feelings and implies
that the surgery will solve everything.
b) This response is self-disclosure and nontherapeutic, as it shifts the focus from the client to the nurse and
does not address the client's fears.
d) This response is minimizing and nontherapeutic, as it tells the client how to feel and does not acknowledge the client's regret or anxiety.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Oral candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a fungal infection of the mouth caused by Candida albicans. It is a common adverse effect of inhaled corticosteroids, such as fluticasone, which can suppress the normal flora of the oral cavity and create a favorable environment for fungal growth. It manifests as white patches or plaques on the tongue, palate, or cheeks that can be scraped off.
a) Polyuria, or excessive urination, is not an adverse effect of fluticasone. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, diabetes insipidus, diuretics, or kidney disease.
b) Hypoglycemia, or low blood glucose level, is not an adverse effect of fluticasone. It can be caused by
insulin overdose, oral hypoglycemic agents, alcohol intake, or prolonged fasting.
c) Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is not an adverse effect of fluticasone. It can be caused by stress, obesity, smoking, salt intake, or kidney disease.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Answer: A
Rationale:
A) Administering a nebulized beta-adrenergic:
In the case of an acute asthma exacerbation, administering a nebulized beta-adrenergic agonist (such as albuterol) is the highest priority. These medications act quickly to relax bronchial smooth muscle, dilate airways, and improve airflow. This intervention directly addresses the underlying bronchospasm and helps to alleviate the acute symptoms of asthma.
B) Providing immediate rest for the client:
While rest is important in managing an acute asthma exacerbation, it is not the immediate priority. Addressing the airway obstruction with appropriate medications is crucial for stabilizing the client's condition before focusing on comfort measures such as rest.
C) Positioning the client in high-Fowler's:
Positioning the client in a high-Fowler's position can help improve lung expansion and facilitate breathing. However, this action is secondary to administering medication that can relieve the acute symptoms of bronchoconstriction. The medication should be administered first to rapidly address the exacerbation.
D) Initiating oxygen therapy:
Oxygen therapy might be necessary if the client shows signs of hypoxemia or severe respiratory distress. However, the immediate priority is to address the bronchospasm with a nebulized beta-adrenergic agonist to improve airflow. Once the acute bronchospasm is managed, oxygen therapy can be implemented if needed to support oxygen saturation.
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