A nurse is assessing a client with suspected hypovolemic shock following trauma. Which clinical finding is most indicative of this condition?
Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
Heart rate of 120 beats/min
Warm, dry skin
Urine output of 40 mL/hr
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within normal range and does not indicate hypovolemic shock, which typically presents with hypotension (e.g., <90/60 mm Hg). Early shock may have normal blood pressure, but tachycardia (heart rate 120 beats/min) is a more sensitive indicator of compensatory response to volume loss.
Choice B reason: Heart rate of 120 beats/min indicates tachycardia, a hallmark of hypovolemic shock. In trauma, blood loss reduces circulating volume, triggering sympathetic activation to increase heart rate, compensating for decreased cardiac output. This is the most indicative finding, as it appears early and reflects the body’s response to hypovolemia.
Choice C reason: Warm, dry skin is not typical of hypovolemic shock, which causes cool, clammy skin due to vasoconstriction from sympathetic activation. Warm skin may occur in distributive shock (e.g., sepsis). Tachycardia is a more specific indicator of hypovolemia, making this finding incorrect for the suspected condition.
Choice D reason: Urine output of 40 mL/hr is within normal range (30-50 mL/hr) and does not indicate hypovolemic shock, which typically reduces output (<30 mL/hr) due to decreased renal perfusion. Tachycardia (120 beats/min) is a more immediate and sensitive sign of hypovolemia, making urine output less indicative in early shock.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Stage 4 chronic kidney disease is characterized by a GFR of 15-29 mL/min/1.73 m², indicating severe kidney dysfunction. The kidneys have limited ability to filter waste, leading to accumulation of toxins, fluid overload, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyperkalemia or metabolic acidosis. A GFR of 43 mL/min/1.73 m² is higher, reflecting moderate rather than severe impairment, making Stage 4 incorrect.
Choice B reason: Stage 3 chronic kidney disease is defined by a GFR of 30-59 mL/min/1.73 m², subdivided into Stage 3A (45-59) and Stage 3B (30-44). A GFR of 43 falls within Stage 3B, indicating moderate kidney damage. This stage involves reduced filtration capacity, potentially causing symptoms like edema, hypertension, or early uremia due to impaired waste excretion and fluid balance regulation.
Choice C reason: Stage 2 chronic kidney disease corresponds to a GFR of 60-89 mL/min/1.73 m², indicating mild kidney dysfunction. Patients may be asymptomatic, but structural kidney damage may be present, detectable via proteinuria or imaging. A GFR of 43 is lower, indicating more significant impairment with increased risk of complications like anemia or bone disease, ruling out Stage 2.
Choice D reason: Stage 1 chronic kidney disease is defined by a GFR ≥90 mL/min/1.73 m² with evidence of kidney damage, such as proteinuria or abnormal imaging. Kidney function is nearly normal, and symptoms are typically absent. A GFR of 43 indicates moderate to severe kidney damage, far below the normal range, making Stage 1 an incorrect classification for this client.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Esophageal intubation results in no chest wall expansion bilaterally, as air enters the stomach, not the lungs. The client’s unilateral absence of left-sided expansion suggests air is entering the right lung, indicating the tube is in the trachea but malpositioned, not in the esophagus, which would affect both sides.
Choice B reason: Vocal cord infection, or laryngitis, may cause hoarseness or airway swelling but does not cause unilateral chest wall expansion failure. This finding indicates a mechanical issue with ventilation distribution, such as tube malposition. Infection affects mucosal function, not lung expansion, making this an unlikely cause of the observed symptom.
Choice C reason: Movement of the endotracheal tube into the right main bronchus causes right-sided ventilation and left-sided collapse, resulting in absent left chest wall expansion. This malposition, common due to the right bronchus’s straighter anatomy, leads to unilateral ventilation, matching the client’s presentation and requiring urgent repositioning to restore bilateral lung function.
Choice D reason: Tongue blockage of the endotracheal tube is unlikely, as the tube is placed beyond the oral cavity. Even if obstructed, it would affect both lungs, not just the left. The unilateral absence of expansion points to tube malposition in the right bronchus, selectively ventilating one lung, not a tongue-related obstruction.
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