A nurse is assessing a client’s wound dressing and observes a watery red drainage. The nurse should document this drainage as which of the following?
Sanguineous
Serous
Serosanguineous
Purulent
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Sanguineous drainage is bright red and consists primarily of blood, indicating active bleeding. Watery red drainage suggests a mix of blood and serous fluid, not pure blood, making this choice incorrect for the described wound drainage.
Choice B reason: Serous drainage is clear or slightly yellow, watery fluid without blood. The presence of red in the described watery drainage indicates a combination with blood, ruling out pure serous drainage, making this choice incorrect for the observed characteristics.
Choice C reason: Serosanguineous drainage is watery, pink to light red, combining serous fluid and blood. This matches the described watery red drainage, typical in healing wounds with minor bleeding, making it the correct documentation term for the nurse to use.
Choice D reason: Purulent drainage is thick, opaque, and often yellow, green, or white, indicating infection. Watery red drainage does not fit this description, as it lacks the viscosity and color of pus, making this an incorrect choice for the wound’s drainage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: A newly admitted client needing wet-to-dry dressing changes requires initial wound assessment and teaching, which are RN responsibilities. LPNs can perform dressings, but new admissions involve complex evaluations outside their scope, making this inappropriate for delegation.
Choice B reason: Emptying a JP drain for a discharge-ready client is a routine, stable task within an LPN’s scope. The patient’s condition is stable, and the procedure is straightforward, requiring no complex judgment, making this the most appropriate task to delegate to an LPN/LVN.
Choice C reason: A client with a stage III pressure ulcer and IV antibiotics requires advanced wound assessment and IV management, which are RN tasks. LPNs have limited scope for IV therapy and complex wounds, making this inappropriate for delegation.
Choice D reason: A client 2 days post-abdominal surgery on oral pain medication may need monitoring for complications, an RN responsibility. LPNs can assist, but potential instability makes this less suitable for delegation compared to the stable, routine task of emptying a JP drain.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Chronic alcohol abuse may cause hypomagnesemia, which can mimic hypocalcemia symptoms, but a positive Chvostek sign is specific to low calcium. Alcoholism alone is less likely to cause this sign without concurrent hypocalcemia, making this choice incorrect.
Choice B reason: Osteoporosis in a 75-year-old involves bone density loss but does not typically cause hypocalcemia or a positive Chvostek sign. Calcium levels are usually normal unless other conditions exist, making this choice incorrect for the expected finding.
Choice C reason: Acute hyperparathyroidism can lead to hypocalcemia after parathyroidectomy or in secondary complications, causing a positive Chvostek sign (facial twitching when tapping the facial nerve). Low calcium triggers this neuromuscular response, making this the correct choice.
Choice D reason: Severe burns cause fluid shifts and potential electrolyte imbalances, but hypocalcemia is not a primary feature. A positive Chvostek sign is less likely without specific calcium depletion, making this choice incorrect for the expected finding.
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