A nurse is assessing four clients in a prenatal clinic.
Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend that the provider see first?
A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and reports not having felt the fetus move.
A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has a fetal heart rate of 160/min via Doppler.
A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has 2+ deep tendon reflexes.
A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and reports blurred vision.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
A client at 12 weeks of gestation not feeling fetal movement is expected. Fetal movement, or quickening, typically begins between 16 and 20 weeks of gestation for primigravidas and earlier for multigravidas. At 12 weeks, the fetus is still small and movements are not usually strong enough to be consistently perceived by the mother, thus this finding is not immediately concerning.
Choice B rationale
A fetal heart rate (FHR) of 160/min at 28 weeks of gestation is within the normal range, which is typically 110-160 beats/min. A normal FHR indicates adequate fetal oxygenation and well-being. Therefore, this finding does not suggest an emergent situation requiring immediate provider assessment.
Choice C rationale
Deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) graded as 2+ are considered normal. This grading indicates an average, brisk reflex response. Abnormal DTRs, such as hyperreflexia (3+ or 4+), can be indicative of preeclampsia, but a 2+ finding is physiological and does not warrant immediate concern.
Choice D rationale
Blurred vision in a client at 36 weeks of gestation can be a symptom of preeclampsia, a serious hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. This condition can lead to severe complications such as eclampsia, placental abruption, or HELLP syndrome, requiring immediate medical evaluation and intervention to prevent adverse maternal and fetal outcomes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A temperature of 37.7° C (99.9° F) in the immediate postpartum period is a relatively common and often benign finding, typically within normal limits or indicating mild dehydration or exertion from labor. A slight elevation is not usually a cause for immediate concern unless accompanied by other signs of infection, which would warrant further investigation. Normal range is 36.5° C to 37.5° C (97.7° F to 99.5° F).
Choice B rationale
A boggy fundus is a significant finding that the nurse should report immediately. A boggy, soft uterus indicates uterine atony, which means the uterine muscles are not contracting effectively. This significantly increases the risk of postpartum hemorrhage due to inadequate compression of uterine blood vessels.
Choice C rationale
Lochia rubra with small clots is considered a normal finding in the immediate postpartum period. Lochia rubra is the initial dark red discharge consisting of blood, decidual tissue, and mucus. Small clots are expected as blood clots and detaches from the uterine wall, reflecting normal uterine involution.
Choice D rationale
Minimal perineal edema is a normal and expected finding after vaginal delivery. The trauma of childbirth often results in some degree of swelling in the perineal area. "Minimal" edema indicates that the swelling is not excessive and does not suggest a complication requiring immediate reporting to the provider.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Ensuring suction is available is critical because clients with severe preeclampsia or eclampsia are at risk for seizures that can cause airway obstruction from secretions or vomiting. Suction readiness supports immediate airway management during a seizure, preventing aspiration and maintaining oxygenation, essential in protecting maternal and fetal health.
Choice B rationale: Administering 10 L of oxygen via nasal cannula is not appropriate because nasal cannulas typically deliver oxygen up to 6 L/min; higher flows require a different delivery system like a non-rebreather mask. Also, routine high-flow oxygen is not indicated unless hypoxia is present. The client’s oxygen saturation is normal (99%), so supplemental oxygen at this rate is unnecessary and could cause discomfort or drying of mucous membranes.
Choice C rationale: Raising side rails is a safety measure to prevent injury during seizures or sudden movements caused by central nervous system irritability in preeclampsia. Elevated side rails help protect the client from falls or trauma if a seizure occurs, an essential precaution in clients with neurological symptoms such as hyperreflexia and clonus.
Choice D rationale: Placing a padded tongue blade at the bedside prepares for seizure management by preventing tongue biting and airway obstruction. The padded blade reduces the risk of oral trauma during convulsions and maintains airway patency. However, it should be used carefully to avoid airway injury or obstruction and only if a seizure occurs.
Choice E rationale: Dimming lights reduces environmental stimuli that may exacerbate neurological irritability or trigger seizures in preeclampsia/eclampsia. Bright or flashing lights can increase CNS excitation, worsening headache, visual disturbances, or seizure risk. Creating a calm, low-stimulation environment helps stabilize the client’s neurological status.
Choice F rationale: Placing the client in the supine position is contraindicated because it compresses the inferior vena cava, reducing venous return and cardiac output, potentially worsening placental perfusion. The left lateral position is preferred in hypertensive pregnancy to optimize uteroplacental blood flow and maternal hemodynamics, improving fetal oxygenation and maternal comfort.
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