A nurse is assessing the lifestyle practices of a pregnant client.
Which of the following lifestyle factors indicates an increased risk for high-risk pregnancy?
Consuming 27 mg of iron daily.
Consuming 300 mg of caffeine daily.
Consuming 3 L (101 oz) of water daily.
Consuming 400 mcg of folate daily.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Consuming 27 mg of iron daily is within the recommended intake for pregnant individuals, which is typically around 27 mg per day. Iron is crucial for fetal growth and preventing maternal anemia, and this intake level supports healthy pregnancy outcomes, indicating a reduced risk factor.
Choice B rationale
Consuming 300 mg of caffeine daily is considered a high-risk lifestyle factor during pregnancy. High caffeine intake is associated with an increased risk of miscarriage, preterm birth, and low birth weight infants. The recommended limit for pregnant individuals is generally below 200 mg per day to mitigate these risks.
Choice C rationale
Consuming 3 L (101 oz) of water daily is a healthy practice during pregnancy. Adequate hydration is essential for maintaining blood volume, amniotic fluid levels, and preventing constipation and urinary tract infections. This intake level supports maternal and fetal health.
Choice D rationale
Consuming 400 mcg of folate daily is the recommended intake for pregnant individuals, particularly in the periconceptional period. Folic acid supplementation significantly reduces the risk of neural tube defects in the fetus, promoting a healthy pregnancy outcome and indicating a reduced risk factor.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Bilirubin levels are typically monitored by a healthcare professional and not by parents at home every 6 hours. The frequency of bilirubin checks for a newborn receiving home phototherapy is usually determined by the healthcare provider based on the infant's bilirubin trajectory and clinical status, often daily or as prescribed.
Choice B rationale
Offering glucose water to newborns is not recommended. Glucose water does not provide adequate nutrition and can interfere with successful breastfeeding or formula feeding by reducing the infant's appetite for nutrient-rich milk. Adequate hydration and nutrition are crucial for bilirubin excretion in jaundiced infants.
Choice C rationale
For biliblanket phototherapy, eye coverings are generally not necessary. The biliblanket emits light from a fiber optic pad that is wrapped around the infant's body, and the light does not directly shine into the baby's eyes, unlike traditional overhead phototherapy lights that require eye protection.
Choice D rationale
Removing the baby from the biliblanket for feedings is appropriate and encouraged. Intermittent breaks for feeding and bonding are permissible as long as the total duration of phototherapy prescribed by the healthcare provider is met. Frequent feedings promote bilirubin excretion through stools.
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Moderate fetal heart rate variability indicates a healthy autonomic nervous system response in the fetus, reflecting adequate oxygenation and neurologic function. Variability within moderate range (6-25 beats/min) suggests the fetus is not currently experiencing hypoxia or acidosis. This finding is reassuring and does not require urgent reporting as it reflects normal fetal well-being according to obstetrical monitoring standards.
Choice B rationale: Persistent headache unrelieved by acetaminophen in a pregnant client with elevated blood pressure is a significant symptom suggestive of worsening preeclampsia or impending eclampsia. Headache can result from cerebral vasospasm or edema and requires prompt evaluation as it indicates central nervous system involvement. Elevated blood pressure over 140/90 mm Hg plus headache raises concern for severe preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale: The heart rate of 98 beats/min is within normal adult range (60-100 bpm) and is not clinically concerning in this context.
Choice D rationale: Edema, especially 2+ pitting in the lower extremities and hands, is common in pregnancy but circumorbital and hand edema preventing ring removal is concerning. It may indicate fluid retention due to endothelial dysfunction and capillary leakage seen in preeclampsia. Such edema suggests worsening vascular permeability and should be reported for timely management.
Choice E rationale: Blood pressure reading of 160/98 mm Hg is above the normal pregnancy threshold (less than 140/90 mm Hg) and qualifies as severe hypertension. Elevated blood pressure is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia and increases risk for maternal and fetal complications including stroke, placental abruption, and fetal growth restriction, requiring immediate provider notification.
Choice F rationale: The fetal heart rate of 130 beats/min falls within the normal baseline range (110-160 bpm) with moderate variability, indicating no current fetal distress. This normal finding does not require urgent reporting as it reflects appropriate fetal status.
Choice G rationale: Irregular contractions without pattern or intensity are common and often represent Braxton Hicks contractions, especially near term. These do not typically indicate active labor or distress and do not require urgent reporting unless they become regular, painful, or accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
Choice H rationale: Negative ankle clonus reflects normal neurological function and absence of central nervous system hyperreflexia. Presence of clonus could suggest severe preeclampsia with neurological involvement; its absence is reassuring and not a reportable concern.
Choice I rationale: Patellar deep tendon reflexes at 2+ are normal on a scale of 0 to 4+. Hyperreflexia (3+ or 4+) could indicate neurologic irritability from preeclampsia. Normal reflexes suggest no current severe neurological involvement, so this does not warrant immediate reporting.
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