A nurse is assisting in the care of a client.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse plan to implement? Select all that apply.
Contact children and youth services.
Administer sexually transmitted infection prophylaxis.
Provide resources to the client for the local Alcoholics Anonymous chapter.
Maintain a safe and private environment for the client.
Request a consult for case management.
Provide resources for local support services.
Correct Answer : B,D,E,F
A. Contact children and youth services. There is no indication that the client is a minor. Mandatory reporting to child protective services applies to minors, but in the case of an adult client, reporting sexual assault is the client’s decision unless required by law (such as in cases involving incapacitated individuals or threats to public safety).
B. Administer sexually transmitted infection prophylaxis. Clients who have experienced sexual assault should be offered prophylactic treatment for sexually transmitted infections (STIs), including chlamydia, gonorrhea, and trichomoniasis, in accordance with CDC guidelines. Post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV may also be considered based on risk factors.
C. Provide resources to the client for the local Alcoholics Anonymous chapter. The client reports social drinking but has not indicated problematic alcohol use or a desire for treatment. Providing unsolicited resources for Alcoholics Anonymous may not be appropriate in this situation.
D. Maintain a safe and private environment for the client. Ensuring privacy and a safe space is essential for clients who have experienced trauma. The nurse should provide emotional support, minimize interruptions, and allow the client to make decisions regarding care.
E. Request a consult for case management. Case management services can assist with legal considerations, follow-up care, counseling referrals, and safety planning. The nurse should initiate a referral to support the client’s needs.
F. Provide resources for local support services. Sexual assault survivors should receive information about crisis hotlines, advocacy groups, counseling services, and other community resources that can offer emotional and legal support.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale. The Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) is a validated tool specifically designed to assess and identify tardive dyskinesia in clients taking antipsychotic medications. The AIMS evaluates the presence, frequency, and severity of involuntary movements, providing a structured approach for monitoring and documenting these symptoms over time.
B. Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale. The Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) is utilized to assess a range of psychiatric symptoms, including depression, anxiety, and psychosis. However, it does not specifically address the assessment of abnormal involuntary movements associated with tardive dyskinesia. Therefore, while it is useful for general psychiatric evaluation, it is not appropriate for identifying tardive dyskinesia.
C. Patient Health Questionnaire-9. The Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9) is a widely used screening tool for assessing the severity of depression. It focuses on mood-related symptoms and does not evaluate movement disorders or side effects of antipsychotic medications. As such, it is not relevant for identifying tardive dyskinesia.
D. Mental Status Examination. The Mental Status Examination (MSE) provides a comprehensive assessment of a client’s cognitive and emotional state, covering areas such as appearance, behavior, thought processes, and mood. While the MSE is valuable for overall psychiatric evaluation, it does not specifically assess for tardive dyskinesia or abnormal involuntary movements, making it unsuitable for this purpose.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Options:
- Urge to defecate occurs as the fetal head descends further into the birth canal, putting pressure on the rectum and perineum. This is a common sign of the second stage of labor, indicating that the client is nearing delivery.
- Increased bloody show results from cervical dilation and effacement as the capillaries in the cervix rupture. A greater amount of blood-tinged mucus is expected as labor progresses, particularly in the transition phase and early second stage.
- Cervix 10 cm dilated confirms that the client has reached full cervical dilation, which is required for the second stage of labor to begin. Complete dilation allows for the passage of the fetus through the birth canal.
- Contractions strong on palpation indicate effective uterine activity, which is necessary for fetal descent and expulsion. Strong contractions help in moving the baby downward and increasing pressure on the cervix.
Rationale for Incorrect Options:
- A heart rate of 110/min is elevated compared to the client’s earlier readings (90/min at 0830, 110/min at 0845) and may indicate maternal stress or exertion from labor pain. While mild increases in maternal heart rate are expected during labor, tachycardia above 110/min warrants further evaluation, particularly in the presence of fever.
- Temperature of 39.1°C (102.4°F). This temperature is abnormally high and suggests infection, such as chorioamnionitis, especially considering the prolonged rupture of membranes since 1900 the previous night. Normal maternal temperature may rise slightly during labor due to exertion, but fever above 38°C (100.4°F) is concerning and requires medical attention.
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