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A nurse is assisting in the care of a female client.

Exhibits

Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.

The nurse should first address the client'

followed by the client’s.
Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"C"}

Rationale:

The client’s blood pressure of 80/46 mm Hg indicates hypotension, likely due to dehydration from persistent diarrhea. This is the most critical finding, as it can lead to organ hypoperfusion and shock if not addressed immediately. After stabilizing the client’s blood pressure, the nurse should address the client’s low potassium level (3.1 mEq/L), as hypokalemia can cause serious complications, including cardiac arrhythmias.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Concentrated urine: This is not a typical adverse effect of ceftriaxone.
B. Maculopapular rash: This is a common hypersensitivity reaction associated with ceftriaxone, a cephalosporin antibiotic. It can indicate an allergic response and should be monitored closely.
C. Constipation: Ceftriaxone is not known to commonly cause constipation.
D. Pitting edema: Edema is not typically associated with ceftriaxone administration.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. A client who has a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 90 seconds (30-40 seconds).: This is significantly elevated and indicates a risk for bleeding, as the therapeutic range for heparin is typically 1.5–2.5 times the normal value.
B. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 2.0 (0.8 to 1.1): This is within the therapeutic range for most conditions treated with warfarin (e.g., 2.0–3.0).
C. A client who has a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 65 seconds (30-40 seconds): This is slightly elevated but still within the therapeutic range for heparin (typically 60–80 seconds).
D. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 3.0 (0.8 to 1.1): This is within the therapeutic range for most warfarin indications.

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