A nurse is collecting data from a client who is taking sumatriptan. Which of the following reports indicates a therapeutic response to the medication?
Improved mood
increased bone mass
Relief of chest pain
Absence of headache
The Correct Answer is D
D. The absence of headache indicates a therapeutic response to sumatriptan. Sumatriptan is specifically indicated for the acute treatment of migraine attacks with or without aura and the acute treatment of cluster headache episodes. The absence of headache indicates that sumatriptan has effectively relieved the headache symptoms.
A. Improved mood is not a direct therapeutic response to sumatriptan. While relieving headache pain may contribute to an improved mood, sumatriptan primarily targets headache symptoms rather than mood regulation.
B. Increased bone mass is not a therapeutic response to sumatriptan. Sumatriptan does not affect bone metabolism or bone mass. Therefore, changes in bone mass would not be related to sumatriptan therapy.
C. Sumatriptan is not used in the management of chest pain.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Hydrochlorothiazide can cause electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia (low potassium levels), hyponatremia (low sodium levels), and hypomagnesemia (low magnesium levels). Monitoring serum electrolyte levels, including potassium, sodium, and magnesium, is essential to detect and manage any abnormalities that may occur as a result of hydrochlorothiazide therapy.
B. Thyroid levels are not typically affected by hydrochlorothiazide therapy. Therefore, monitoring thyroid levels is not necessary in clients taking hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension.
C. Hydrochlorothiazide is not known to affect coagulation studies such as prothrombin time (PT), activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), or international normalized ratio (INR).
D. Hydrochlorothiazide is not typically associated with significant hematologic effects that would necessitate routine monitoring of the complete blood count. Therefore, monitoring CBC is not routinely indicated for clients taking hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. According to the recommended immunization schedule, the second dose of the MMR vaccine is typically administered at 4 to 6 years of age, before starting school. This booster dose helps ensure long- term immunity against measles, mumps, and rubella.
B. The MMR vaccine is typically administered in two doses: the first dose at 12 to 15 months of age and the second dose at 4 to 6 years of age. There is no need for additional MMR immunizations over the next 2 years if the child receives the recommended doses.
C. While the child may receive additional immunizations at 3 years of age, such as the hepatitis B vaccine, the second dose of the MMR vaccine is typically administered at 4 to 6 years of age, not 3 years.
D. Titer testing is typically not recommended for determining the need for further MMR immunizations in young children. The immunization schedule provides specific recommendations for MMR vaccine doses based on age, rather than individual titers.
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