A nurse is collecting data from a client who is taking sumatriptan. Which of the following reports indicates a therapeutic response to the medication?
Improved mood
increased bone mass
Relief of chest pain
Absence of headache
The Correct Answer is D
D. The absence of headache indicates a therapeutic response to sumatriptan. Sumatriptan is specifically indicated for the acute treatment of migraine attacks with or without aura and the acute treatment of cluster headache episodes. The absence of headache indicates that sumatriptan has effectively relieved the headache symptoms.
A. Improved mood is not a direct therapeutic response to sumatriptan. While relieving headache pain may contribute to an improved mood, sumatriptan primarily targets headache symptoms rather than mood regulation.
B. Increased bone mass is not a therapeutic response to sumatriptan. Sumatriptan does not affect bone metabolism or bone mass. Therefore, changes in bone mass would not be related to sumatriptan therapy.
C. Sumatriptan is not used in the management of chest pain.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Increased respiratory rate is a sign that naloxone is effectively reversing opioid-induced respiratory depression. Opioids can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to hypoventilation or respiratory arrest. Naloxone works by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing opioids, thereby restoring normal respiratory function.
B. Increased temperature is not a direct effect of naloxone administration. Naloxone primarily reverses the central nervous system depressant effects of opioids, including respiratory depression and sedation, rather than affecting body temperature.
C. Naloxone does not directly affect pain perception. Its primary action is to reverse the respiratory depression and central nervous system depression caused by opioids. While the client may experience pain relief indirectly as a result of improved respiratory function and consciousness, naloxone itself does not directly reduce pain.
D. Decreased blood pressure is not a direct effect of naloxone administration. Naloxone primarily reverses the respiratory and central nervous system depressant effects of opioids, rather than affecting blood pressure directly.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Acetylcysteine, also known as N-acetylcysteine (NAC), is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It works by replenishing depleted glutathione stores in the liver and preventing or reversing hepatotoxicity caused by acetaminophen overdose. Acetylcysteine should be administered as soon as possible after an acetaminophen overdose to maximize its effectiveness in preventing liver damage.
A. Monitoring amylase and lipase levels is not directly related to acetaminophen overdose. Amylase and lipase are pancreatic enzymes that are typically monitored to assess pancreatic function and diagnose conditions such as pancreatitis.
C. Obtaining a chest x-ray is not typically indicated for acetaminophen overdose. Acetaminophen overdose primarily affects the liver, and the manifestations are predominantly related to hepatotoxicity.
D. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose by blocking opioid receptors. It is not indicated for acetaminophen overdose. Acetaminophen overdose does not involve opioid receptors, and naloxone would not be effective in treating acetaminophen toxicity.
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