A nurse is assisting the provider to care for trauma patient who has been diagnosed with a hemothorax. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first to treat this cause of obstructive shock?

Prepare for chest tube insertion

Chart assessment findings

Administer lorazepam

Initiate IV fluid resuscitation

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Prepare for chest tube insertion:
The priority treatment for a hemothorax, which is a collection of blood in the pleural space, is to address the loss of intravascular volume and to relieve the pressure on the lungs. The insertion of a chest tube is the first step in draining the blood and restoring proper lung function and ventilation. This intervention directly addresses the cause of obstructive shock (increased pressure on the lungs and impaired cardiac output) by re-expanding the lung and preventing further complications such as respiratory distress or cardiovascular collapse.

B) Chart assessment findings:
While accurate documentation of the patient's condition is important for ongoing care and legal purposes, it is not the priority action in this situation. Immediate treatment to address the hemothorax, such as chest tube insertion, takes precedence over documentation. Charting should be done after stabilizing the patient.

C) Administer lorazepam:
Lorazepam is an anxiolytic medication that might be used for anxiety or agitation, but it is not an immediate priority in this situation. The patient's life-threatening condition (hemothorax) needs to be addressed first, and sedation or anxiety management should be considered once the patient is stabilized and receiving appropriate interventions.

D) Initiate IV fluid resuscitation:
While fluid resuscitation is essential in trauma patients with hypovolemic shock, the primary concern in hemothorax is relieving the intrathoracic pressure by draining the blood from the pleural space. IV fluid resuscitation should be initiated shortly after or simultaneously with the chest tube insertion, but addressing the hemothorax directly is the first priority in treating obstructive shock.

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Correct Answer is ["A","D"]

Explanation

A) O- (O negative):
A person with blood type A- can safely receive blood from a universal donor blood type, which is O-. This is because O- has no A, B, or Rh antigens on the surface of its red blood cells, making it compatible with any ABO blood group. The Rh negative status is also compatible, as the recipient is also Rh-negative.

B) AB- (AB negative):
A person with blood type A- cannot receive blood from someone with AB-. This is because the AB- blood type contains both A and B antigens on the surface of red blood cells, which could cause an immune reaction in a person with A- blood, whose immune system will react against the B antigen. Therefore, AB- is not compatible with A- blood.

C) A+ (A positive):
A person with A- blood cannot receive blood from an A+ donor, because the A+ blood contains the Rh positive antigen. If a person with A- blood receives Rh-positive blood, they will form antibodies against the Rh factor, leading to a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Therefore, A+ is not compatible with A- blood.

D) A- (A negative):
A person with A- blood can receive blood from another A- donor, because both share the A antigen and are Rh-negative. This is a perfect match and poses no risk of a transfusion reaction.

E) O+ (O positive):
A person with A- blood cannot receive blood from an O+ donor, because the O+ blood contains the Rh-positive antigen. This could cause an immune reaction in a person with A- blood, leading to the production of anti-Rh antibodies. Therefore, O+ is not compatible with A- blood.

A. treatment plan will need to be changed to achieve the desired effect B. cancer treatment is having, the desired effect on killing cancer cells C. client is at greater risk for tumor lysis syndrome D. cancer has increased size and metastatic sites

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Treatment plan will need to be changed to achieve the desired effect:
The decrease in the carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels from 50 ng/mL to 10 ng/mL suggests that the cancer is responding to the current treatment, not that the treatment plan needs to be changed. A drop in CEA levels typically indicates a positive response to treatment, such as chemotherapy, in reducing the number or size of cancer cells.

B) Cancer treatment is having the desired effect on killing cancer cells:
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a tumor marker that is often elevated in individuals with certain cancers, particularly colorectal cancer. A decrease in CEA levels, as noted in this case (from 50 ng/mL to 10 ng/mL), usually signifies that the treatment is successfully targeting the cancer and reducing the tumor burden. This drop suggests that the chemotherapy is effectively killing cancer cells and reducing the size or activity of the tumor.

C) Client is at greater risk for tumor lysis syndrome:
Tumor lysis syndrome typically occurs when large numbers of cancer cells die rapidly, releasing their intracellular contents into the bloodstream, which can lead to metabolic disturbances like hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and renal failure. It is more common in aggressive hematologic cancers, such as leukemia or lymphoma, and typically presents with a rapid rise in tumor marker levels, not a decrease.

D) Cancer has increased size and metastatic sites:
An increase in tumor size or the development of metastatic sites would typically result in an increase in CEA levels, not a decrease. Since CEA levels have dropped, it is more likely that the cancer is shrinking or responding to the current treatment. This finding is more indicative of a positive response rather than disease progression.

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A nurse is assisting the provider to care for trauma patient who has been diagnosed with a hemothorax. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first to treat this cause of obstructive shock?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBC's) to a patient whose blood type is A- (negative). The nurse knows that this patient can receive transfusions from which blood types? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY).

Correct Answer is ["A","D"]

Explanation

The nurse is reviewing lab results for a client receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of cancer. The nurse notes the carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) was previously 50 ng/ mL and is now 10 ng/mL (normal range 0-2.5 ng/mL) The nurse is aware this finding indicates the:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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