The neurologic assessment of a patient indicated impaired function of the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 10) and the vagus nerve (C.N X). Based on these findings, the nurse plans to;

insert an oral airway and suction as needed.

withhold oral fluids and food.

apply artificial pears to protect the cornea.

speak clearly while facing the patient.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Insert an oral airway and suction as needed:
This is generally not the first intervention for impaired glossopharyngeal (CN IX) and vagus nerve (CN X) function. The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves play a critical role in swallowing, gag reflex, and the ability to protect the airway. While an airway might be necessary in cases of severe dysfunction, withholding food and fluids is a more immediate and specific concern when these cranial nerves are impaired, as it prevents aspiration risk.

B) Withhold oral fluids and food:
The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) is involved in taste and swallowing, and the vagus nerve (CN X) is crucial for the motor control of the pharynx and larynx, which are involved in swallowing and protecting the airway. Dysfunction of these nerves can lead to difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), increased risk for aspiration, and the inability to protect the airway effectively. Withholding oral fluids and food helps prevent aspiration, a major risk when these nerves are impaired, until further assessment and management can be done.

C) Apply artificial tears to protect the cornea:
While it is important to protect the cornea in patients with cranial nerve dysfunction (specifically the facial nerve, CN VII), this does not directly relate to the glossopharyngeal (CN IX) and vagus (CN X) nerves. The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves affect swallowing and airway protection, not eye lubrication. Applying artificial tears would not address the risk associated with impaired swallowing or airway protection.

D) Speak clearly while facing the patient:
Although speaking clearly and facing the patient might be helpful for communication, especially if the patient has difficulty with speech due to nerve impairment, it does not address the immediate and more critical concern of impaired swallowing and airway protection associated with dysfunction of the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves. The primary concern is ensuring the patient is not at risk for aspiration while eating or drinking.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBCs):
Packed Red Blood Cells are typically transfused when there is anemia or significant blood loss leading to low hemoglobin levels. In the case of warfarin overdose or elevated PT/INR, the problem is related to coagulation and not red blood cell count.

B) Platelets:
Platelets are typically transfused when there is thrombocytopenia or a need to address platelet dysfunction (e.g., in patients with bleeding due to low platelet counts). However, the elevated PT and INR in this case are related to the coagulation cascade being inhibited by warfarin, not platelet deficiency.

C) Cryoprecipitate:
Cryoprecipitate is primarily used to replace clotting factors such as fibrinogen, factor VIII, and von Willebrand factor. It is typically transfused in patients with hemophilia or bleeding disorders related to low fibrinogen levels. However, in this case, the issue is related to warfarin-induced inhibition of clotting factors (specifically the vitamin K-dependent factors: II, VII, IX, and X), not a deficiency in fibrinogen or specific clotting factors addressed by cryoprecipitate.

D) Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP):
Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) is the most appropriate choice for this patient. FFP contains all the coagulation factors, including the vitamin K-dependent factors that warfarin inhibits. When a patient on warfarin presents with elevated PT and INR (which indicates impaired clotting ability), FFP is used to replace the clotting factors and help reverse the effects of warfarin.

A. Unstable B. Variant C. Chronic stable D. Nocturnal

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Unstable:
Unstable angina is the type of angina most closely related to an impending myocardial infarction (MI). It is characterized by unpredictable chest pain that occurs at rest or with minimal exertion, or that increases in severity or frequency. Unstable angina represents a medical emergency and can progress to an MI if not promptly treated. It occurs when there is increased myocardial oxygen demand and a partially occluded coronary artery, often due to a ruptured atherosclerotic plaque.

B) Variant (Prinzmetal's) angina:
Variant angina, also known as Prinzmetal's angina, is caused by a spasm of the coronary artery, which temporarily narrows or obstructs blood flow. Although it can be severe and may occur at rest, it is typically transient and is not directly related to the development of an MI. Variant angina usually responds to medications such as nitrates or calcium channel blockers, and while it can be dangerous, it is not the most likely type of angina associated with a myocardial infarction.

C) Chronic stable angina:
Chronic stable angina occurs with predictable patterns, typically with exertion or stress, and resolves with rest or nitroglycerin. It does not usually indicate an impending MI, as it is a chronic condition caused by atherosclerosis that limits the heart's blood supply under stress. While chronic stable angina increases the risk of MI over time, it is not directly associated with an imminent heart attack.

D) Nocturnal angina:
Nocturnal angina refers to chest pain that occurs during the night or early morning hours, often during sleep. It may be associated with sleep apnea, GERD, or increased sympathetic tone during sleep. This type of angina is less commonly linked to an impending MI compared to unstable angina, although it should still be evaluated for any underlying cardiovascular issues.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

The neurologic assessment of a patient indicated impaired function of the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 10) and the vagus nerve (C.N X). Based on these findings, the nurse plans to;

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for patient with a history of atrial fibrillation who is prescribed warfarin. Sometimes I forget my medication, so l double up doses when I remember " The patient's PT and INR are highly elevated. The nurse anticipates the transfusion of which blood product?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse knows which of the following types of angina is most closely related with an impending myocardial infarction (MI)?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client admitted to the Emergency Department with a suspected STEM. The nurse anticipates that this client will be immediately prepared for the cardiac catheterization laboratory as the goal of treatment is to:

A young adult is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after a motor vehicle accident (MVA). The patient has severe right chest pain where there was impact with the steering wheel. Which is the priority patient goal?

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with acute coronary syndrome who has just returned to the nursing unit following an intracoronary stent insertion. Which action is the priority at this time?

A nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with a seizure disorder about phenytoin sodium therapy. What information should the nurse stress regarding the client stopping the drug suddenly? The drug should not be stopped abruptly because:

The nurse is preparing discharge teaching for a client newly diagnosed with cancer who just had a tunneled IV catheter (Hickman) placed. The nurse would include which information in the teaching plan regarding sign and symptoms of infection?

Which initial assessment findings would the nurse expect in a client diagnosed with acute lymphocytic leukemia ALL? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

In providing care to a patient who sustained left sided 10th through 12th rib fractures, the nurse notes Kehr's Cullen's and Gray Turner's signs during assessment. Which abdominal organ is most likely to be affected by this trauma?

The nurse is caring for a client with a permanent biventricular pacemaker. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?