The neurologic assessment of a patient indicated impaired function of the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 10) and the vagus nerve (C.N X). Based on these findings, the nurse plans to;
insert an oral airway and suction as needed.
withhold oral fluids and food.
apply artificial pears to protect the cornea.
speak clearly while facing the patient.
The Correct Answer is B
A) Insert an oral airway and suction as needed:
This is generally not the first intervention for impaired glossopharyngeal (CN IX) and vagus nerve (CN X) function. The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves play a critical role in swallowing, gag reflex, and the ability to protect the airway. While an airway might be necessary in cases of severe dysfunction, withholding food and fluids is a more immediate and specific concern when these cranial nerves are impaired, as it prevents aspiration risk.
B) Withhold oral fluids and food:
The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) is involved in taste and swallowing, and the vagus nerve (CN X) is crucial for the motor control of the pharynx and larynx, which are involved in swallowing and protecting the airway. Dysfunction of these nerves can lead to difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), increased risk for aspiration, and the inability to protect the airway effectively. Withholding oral fluids and food helps prevent aspiration, a major risk when these nerves are impaired, until further assessment and management can be done.
C) Apply artificial tears to protect the cornea:
While it is important to protect the cornea in patients with cranial nerve dysfunction (specifically the facial nerve, CN VII), this does not directly relate to the glossopharyngeal (CN IX) and vagus (CN X) nerves. The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves affect swallowing and airway protection, not eye lubrication. Applying artificial tears would not address the risk associated with impaired swallowing or airway protection.
D) Speak clearly while facing the patient:
Although speaking clearly and facing the patient might be helpful for communication, especially if the patient has difficulty with speech due to nerve impairment, it does not address the immediate and more critical concern of impaired swallowing and airway protection associated with dysfunction of the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves. The primary concern is ensuring the patient is not at risk for aspiration while eating or drinking.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) CD4 count of less than 200 cells/uL, and new diagnosis of pneumocystis pneumonia:
A CD4 count of less than 200 cells/uL and the diagnosis of a severe opportunistic infection, such as pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), are major criteria for the diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). AIDS is the final stage of HIV infection, where the immune system is severely compromised, and the individual is highly susceptible to opportunistic infections like PCP, tuberculosis, and others. The CD4 count, which measures the number of immune system cells (specifically T-helper cells), is used to monitor disease progression, with values below 200 cells/uL indicating a diagnosis of AIDS.
B) CD4 count of 1200 cells/uL and a new diagnosis of hepatitis A:
While hepatitis A is an important condition that should be managed, it is not an opportunistic infection associated with AIDS. A CD4 count of 1200 cells/uL is within the normal range (500-1800 cells/uL), indicating that the immune system is not severely compromised.
C) Low grade fever with the diagnosis of influenza A:
A low-grade fever and a diagnosis of influenza A do not indicate AIDS. Influenza is a viral infection that can affect both individuals with and without HIV. It is common to experience flu-like symptoms in the early stages of HIV infection, but the presence of a fever and influenza does not confirm AIDS. A low-grade fever is also not specific to AIDS or opportunistic infections.
D) New atopic dermatitis and a white blood count of 11 million/mm³:
Atopic dermatitis is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that is not specifically associated with HIV or AIDS. The white blood cell (WBC) count of 11 million/mm³ is elevated, but this alone does not confirm a diagnosis of AIDS. Elevated WBC counts can occur with various conditions, including infections and allergic reactions, but they are not a diagnostic feature of AIDS.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Insertion of a cardioverter-defibrillator:
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a condition characterized by abnormal thickening of the heart muscle, particularly the septum, which can lead to obstruction of blood flow and contribute to the development of arrhythmias. The most concerning arrhythmias in HCM include ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation, both of which can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. A cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) is a device that monitors the heart's rhythm and can deliver a shock to restore normal rhythm in the event of a life-threatening arrhythmia.
B) A medication regimen that includes nitrates:
Nitrates are vasodilators commonly used in the treatment of conditions like angina and heart failure. However, nitrates are generally avoided in patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy because they can exacerbate the condition by decreasing preload and increasing the outflow tract obstruction due to the thickened heart muscle.
C) Immediate cardiac transplantation:
Cardiac transplantation is a treatment for end-stage heart failure, typically in patients who have not responded to medical or surgical treatments. While hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can lead to heart failure, it is not the first line treatment for dysrhythmias or complications from the disease.
D) Insertion of a drug-eluting stent:
Drug-eluting stents are used to prevent restenosis (narrowing) of coronary arteries after percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD). However, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is not caused by coronary artery disease.
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