The neurologic assessment of a patient indicated impaired function of the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 10) and the vagus nerve (C.N X). Based on these findings, the nurse plans to;

insert an oral airway and suction as needed.

withhold oral fluids and food.

apply artificial pears to protect the cornea.

speak clearly while facing the patient.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Insert an oral airway and suction as needed:
This is generally not the first intervention for impaired glossopharyngeal (CN IX) and vagus nerve (CN X) function. The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves play a critical role in swallowing, gag reflex, and the ability to protect the airway. While an airway might be necessary in cases of severe dysfunction, withholding food and fluids is a more immediate and specific concern when these cranial nerves are impaired, as it prevents aspiration risk.

B) Withhold oral fluids and food:
The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) is involved in taste and swallowing, and the vagus nerve (CN X) is crucial for the motor control of the pharynx and larynx, which are involved in swallowing and protecting the airway. Dysfunction of these nerves can lead to difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), increased risk for aspiration, and the inability to protect the airway effectively. Withholding oral fluids and food helps prevent aspiration, a major risk when these nerves are impaired, until further assessment and management can be done.

C) Apply artificial tears to protect the cornea:
While it is important to protect the cornea in patients with cranial nerve dysfunction (specifically the facial nerve, CN VII), this does not directly relate to the glossopharyngeal (CN IX) and vagus (CN X) nerves. The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves affect swallowing and airway protection, not eye lubrication. Applying artificial tears would not address the risk associated with impaired swallowing or airway protection.

D) Speak clearly while facing the patient:
Although speaking clearly and facing the patient might be helpful for communication, especially if the patient has difficulty with speech due to nerve impairment, it does not address the immediate and more critical concern of impaired swallowing and airway protection associated with dysfunction of the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves. The primary concern is ensuring the patient is not at risk for aspiration while eating or drinking.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Take this medication as needed for pain:
Baclofen is a muscle relaxant typically prescribed for managing spasticity associated with multiple sclerosis (MS), rather than for pain. It should be taken as prescribed, typically on a scheduled basis rather than on an as-needed basis for pain. Misunderstanding this could lead to improper use of the medication and ineffective symptom management.

B) Stop the medication if I experience dry mouth:
Dry mouth is a potential side effect of baclofen, but it should not be the reason to stop the medication abruptly. Stopping baclofen suddenly can result in withdrawal symptoms and could potentially worsen spasticity. If dry mouth or other side effects are bothersome, the client should consult the healthcare provider for management options rather than discontinuing the medication abruptly.

C) Taper this medication off over 1-2 weeks:
This statement demonstrates a correct understanding of the proper way to discontinue baclofen. Baclofen should not be stopped suddenly due to the risk of withdrawal symptoms, which can include increased spasticity, hallucinations, or seizures. A gradual tapering of the dose over a period of 1 to 2 weeks is recommended to avoid withdrawal. This is the most appropriate and safe response.

D) Feel an increase in energy with this medication:
Baclofen is not a medication designed to increase energy. Its primary purpose is to reduce muscle spasticity, not to provide a stimulant effect. If the client expects an increase in energy, this could indicate a misunderstanding of the medication's effects. Baclofen's focus is on reducing spasticity and muscle tightness, not improving energy levels.

A. Clubbing of the fingers B. A heart murmur C. Barrel chest D. Bradycardia

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Clubbing of the fingers
Clubbing of the fingers is typically associated with chronic hypoxia, often due to conditions like chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), congenital heart defects, or chronic respiratory disorders. While mitral valve stenosis can lead to pulmonary congestion and sometimes hypoxia, clubbing is not a hallmark finding of mitral valve stenosis.

B) A heart murmur
Mitral valve stenosis is commonly characterized by a heart murmur. The stenosis (narrowing) of the mitral valve obstructs blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, leading to turbulent blood flow. This creates a characteristic diastolic murmur (a low-pitched, rumbling murmur heard best at the apex of the heart with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position).

C) Barrel chest
A barrel chest is more commonly associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), emphysema, and other conditions that cause long-term hyperinflation of the lungs. It is not a typical finding in mitral valve stenosis. The shape of the chest may change over time in patients with severe left-sided heart failure, but this is not a primary or direct consequence of mitral valve stenosis.

D) Bradycardia
Bradycardia (a slow heart rate) is not a characteristic finding of mitral valve stenosis. In fact, mitral valve stenosis can lead to increased heart rates due to reduced cardiac output and compensatory mechanisms. As the left atrium becomes increasingly distended from the obstruction, atrial fibrillation (a rapid, irregular heartbeat) is common in mitral valve stenosis.

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The neurologic assessment of a patient indicated impaired function of the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 10) and the vagus nerve (C.N X). Based on these findings, the nurse plans to;

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Explanation

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