A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who has a chest tube.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Strip the client’s chest tube every 2 hours.
Loop the tubing of the chest tube on the client’s bed.
Place the chest tube drainage system above the level of the client’s heart.
Tape the connections on the client’s chest tube.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Stripping the client’s chest tube every 2 hours is not recommended. Stripping can create high negative pressures in the tube that can cause damage to the lung tissue. It can also lead to increased pain for the patient and is generally not a standard practice in chest tube management.
Choice B rationale:
Looping the tubing of the chest tube on the client’s bed is not a recommended practice. The chest tube should be free of loops or kinks to allow for proper drainage of air and fluid from the pleural space. Any loops or kinks in the tube can lead to accumulation of fluid or air, which can cause complications such as tension pneumothorax.
The chest tube drainage system should not be placed above the level of the client’s heart. This can lead to the backflow of blood or fluid into the pleural space, which can cause complications such as hemothorax or pleural effusion. The drainage system should always be kept below the level of the client’s chest to allow for gravity-assisted drainage.
Choice D rationale:
Taping the connections on the client’s chest tube is a recommended practice. This is done to secure the connections and prevent accidental disconnection or dislodgement of the tube. An accidental disconnection or dislodgement can lead to complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Therefore, all connections should be securely taped to prevent any accidental disconnections.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Wheezing Wheezing is typically associated with respiratory conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), rather than being a symptom of hyperkalemia.
Choice B rationale:
Cerebral edema Cerebral edema, or swelling in the brain, is not typically a symptom of hyperkalemia. It’s more commonly associated with traumatic brain injury, stroke, or brain tumors.
Choice C rationale:
Decreased deep tendon reflexes Decreased deep tendon reflexes can be a symptom of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia is a condition in which the potassium levels in your blood get too high. Potassium helps nerves send signals between your brain and the rest of your body. High levels of potassium can affect nerve function, leading to symptoms such as muscle weakness or decreased reflexes. Choice D rationale:
Hypoactive bowel sounds Hypoactive bowel sounds, or decreased or absent bowel sounds, are typically associated with conditions affecting the gastrointestinal system, such as ileus or bowel obstruction. They are not typically a symptom of hyperkalemia.
Correct Answer is ["C"]
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice C.
Choice A rationale: Applying four drops of developing solution to each stool specimen is incorrect. Typically, the test requires two drops of solution. Following manufacturer instructions ensures accurate results and prevents unnecessary waste or inaccurate readings.
Choice B rationale: Using toilet paper to transfer the stool specimen is improper. Stool should be collected using the provided applicator stick to avoid contamination, ensuring the accuracy of the fecal occult blood test.
Choice C rationale: Waiting 30 seconds after applying the developing solution allows the chemical reaction to complete, ensuring accurate detection of any occult blood present in the stool sample.
Choice D rationale: Collecting two stool specimens from the same area increases the risk of missing occult blood present in different parts of the stool. Sampling from multiple areas enhances test accuracy and ensures comprehensive results.
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