A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is multigravid and in active labor with 7 cm of cervical dilation and 100% effacement. The fetus is at 1+ station, and the client's amniotic membranes are intact. The client suddenly states that she needs to push. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing response?
Help the client to the bathroom to empty her bladder.
Assist the client into a comfortable position.
Have the client pant during the next few contractions.
Assess the perineum for signs of crowning.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Helping the client to the bathroom to empty her bladder is not the appropriate response in this situation. The client's sudden urge to push indicates that she is in the second stage of labour, which is the pushing phase. The cervix is already dilated at 7 cm, and the fetus is at 1+ station, indicating that delivery is imminent. Emptying the bladder at this point is not a priority and may delay necessary actions.
Choice B rationale:
Assisting the client into a comfortable position is also not the appropriate response. The client's urge to push suggests that she is in the active stage of labor, and her cervix is already 7 cm dilated. Encouraging a comfortable position might not be suitable since the focus should be on monitoring the progress of labor and preparing for delivery.
Choice C rationale:
Having the client pant during the next few contractions is not the correct response either. Panting is typically recommended during the transition phase of labor to prevent rapid pushing and potential damage to the perineum. However, in this scenario, the client is already fully dilated, and the fetus is at 1+ station, indicating that the second stage of labour has commenced. Panting is not necessary at this point.
Choice D rationale:
The appropriate nursing response is to assess the perineum for signs of crowning. The sudden urge to push indicates that the baby is descending through the birth canal and may be close to crowning, which is when the baby's head becomes visible at the vaginal opening. By assessing for crowning, the nurse can determine if delivery is imminent and notify the healthcare provider for further actions and preparation for the baby's birth.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale :
The correct answer is A. Calcium gluconate. The nurse should administer calcium gluconate in this situation because the client's respiratory rate is 8/min, which indicates respiratory depression. Magnesium sulfate is known to cause respiratory depression as a side effect, and calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction and restoring normal respiratory function. Prompt administration of calcium gluconate can help reverse respiratory depression and prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
Naloxone. Naloxone is not the correct choice in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of opioids in cases of opioid overdose. Since the client is receiving magnesium sulfate, which is not an opioid, naloxone would not be effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Administering naloxone in this situation would not address the underlying cause and may not improve the client's condition.
Choice C rationale
Flumazenil. Flumazenil is not the correct choice in this situation. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of benzodiazepine overdose. Since the client is not receiving benzodiazepines but rather magnesium sulfate, flumazenil would not be effective in treating the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Using flumazenil in this context would not be appropriate and could potentially lead to adverse effects.
Choice D rationale
Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is not the correct choice in this scenario. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It works by neutralizing the effects of heparin and preventing further anticoagulation. Since the client's issue is respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate, administering protamine sulfate would not be helpful and would not address the primary problem.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice D rationale:
The correct answer is Choice D. The biophysical profile is a prenatal test used to assess fetal well-being in the third trimester of pregnancy. It is not used to determine the estimated date of birth (Choice A), as that is typically calculated based on the first day of the last menstrual period and confirmed or adjusted by early ultrasounds.
The test also does not require the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) for 8 hours prior to the test (Choice B). This restriction is commonly associated with certain medical procedures, but it is not applicable to the biophysical profile.
Furthermore, there is no need to initiate an IV (intravenous line) before the biophysical profile (Choice C). The test is non-invasive and involves the use of ultrasound and fetal heart rate monitoring. The biophysical profile assesses several fetal parameters, such as fetal movement, fetal tone, fetal breathing movements, amniotic fluid volume, and the fetal heart rate. These parameters help evaluate the well-being and health of the baby. The test is often recommended in cases of high-risk pregnancies, decreased fetal movement, or other conditions that may warrant closer monitoring of the baby's condition. By knowing that the biophysical profile predicts fetal well-being in the third trimester, the nurse can provide accurate information to the client, reassuring them about the health of their baby and explaining the importance of the test in ensuring a safe delivery and healthy outcome.
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