A nurse is calculating the intake for a client who reports eating a 4 oz container of ice cream and drinking 8 oz of coffee. The nurse should document how many mL of fluid intake in the client's medical record? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["360"]
- Convert ounces to milliliters
Ice cream: 4 oz × 30 mL/oz = 120 mL
Coffee: 8 oz × 30 mL/oz = 240 mL
- Calculate total fluid intake
Total intake = 120 + 240
Total intake = 360 mL
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Methadone: Methadone is a long-acting opioid agonist commonly used in the management of neonatal abstinence syndrome resulting from in utero opioid exposure. It stabilizes withdrawal symptoms by binding to mu-opioid receptors and preventing the abrupt cessation effects that occur after birth. Its longer half-life allows for controlled tapering, reducing autonomic instability, irritability, tremors, and feeding difficulties.
B. Meperidine: Meperidine is a short-acting opioid analgesic primarily used for acute pain management and is not recommended for withdrawal treatment. Its metabolite, normeperidine, can accumulate and cause neurotoxicity, including seizures, especially in neonates with immature hepatic and renal function.
C. Hydromorphone: Hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesic used for severe pain but lacks the pharmacokinetic profile required for structured withdrawal therapy. Its shorter duration of action increases the risk of fluctuating serum levels, which may worsen withdrawal instability. It is not part of standard neonatal abstinence syndrome treatment protocols.
D. Fentanyl: Fentanyl is a highly potent, short-acting synthetic opioid typically used for anesthesia and severe acute pain. Due to its rapid onset and short duration, it does not provide the steady opioid receptor stimulation required to gradually taper withdrawal symptoms in neonates. Its potency also increases the risk of respiratory depression in this population.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Bradycardia: Propranolol is a nonselective beta-adrenergic blocker that inhibits both β1 and β2 receptors. Blockade of β1 receptors in the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes decreases heart rate and conduction velocity. Excessive beta blockade can result in clinically significant bradycardia, hypotension, and reduced cardiac output, requiring monitoring of pulse and BP.
B. Hypertension: Propranolol lowers blood pressure by decreasing cardiac output and suppressing renin release from the kidneys. Its pharmacologic action is antihypertensive rather than hypertensive. Elevated blood pressure would not be expected as a direct adverse effect of appropriate beta-blocker therapy.
C. Tinnitus: Tinnitus is more commonly associated with medications such as salicylates, loop diuretics, or certain antibiotics. Propranolol does not typically affect the auditory system or cochlear blood flow in a way that produces ringing in the ears.
D. Urinary hesitancy: Urinary hesitancy is often linked to anticholinergic medications or conditions such as benign prostatic hyperplasia. Propranolol does not have significant anticholinergic effects and does not commonly interfere with bladder detrusor muscle contraction or urinary flow.
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