A nurse is caring for a 12-year-old client who has sickle cell disease.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.
The nurse should anticipate a provider prescription for
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Rationale for correct choices:
• IV hydromorphone: The child is in a vaso-occlusive crisis, where severe pain is the hallmark finding. IV opioids such as hydromorphone are the treatment of choice for rapid pain relief when pain reaches severe levels unrelieved by oral medications.
• Pain: The child reports escalating pain from 7/10 to 10/10 localized in the right knee with swelling and warmth, consistent with vaso-occlusion. Pain control is the immediate priority because inadequate management can worsen stress and sickling.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
• Fresh frozen plasma transfusion: This is not indicated in sickle cell crisis, as there is no coagulopathy or clotting factor deficiency. Plasma transfusion does not treat anemia or vaso-occlusive pain.
• Factor VIII: This therapy is specific to hemophilia A, which involves a clotting factor deficiency. It has no role in the management of sickle cell disease or vaso-occlusive crisis.
• Platelets: The child’s platelet count is elevated at 450,000/mm³, which reflects a reactive process but not a deficiency. Thrombocytopenia is not present, so platelet replacement is unnecessary.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
• Crohn's disease: The client’s presentation of hematochezia, abdominal pain, fever, anorexia, elevated CRP, hypoalbuminemia, anemia, and positive stool leukocytes points toward Crohn’s, an inflammatory bowel disease with systemic and intestinal involvement.
• Encourage a high-protein diet: Chronic inflammation and malabsorption in Crohn’s disease contribute to weight loss and muscle wasting, so a high-protein diet supports tissue repair and nutritional repletion.
• Record dietary intake: Careful documentation helps identify food triggers, ensures adequate caloric and protein intake, and provides a baseline for evaluating nutritional support interventions.
• Hemoglobin level: Clients with Crohn’s are prone to gastrointestinal blood loss, putting them at risk for anemia; trending hemoglobin values helps track disease activity and bleeding severity.
• Albumin level: Hypoalbuminemia in Crohn’s reflects both malnutrition and protein-losing enteropathy; monitoring this value provides insight into nutritional status and disease progression.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices
• Appendicitis: Appendicitis usually presents with localized right lower quadrant pain, rebound tenderness, and leukocytosis without chronic systemic signs like anemia or hypoalbuminemia, which are more consistent with Crohn’s disease.
• Peptic ulcer disease: Ulcers typically cause epigastric pain and possible melena, but they do not explain systemic inflammation, positive stool leukocytes, or low albumin seen in this case.
• Celiac disease: Celiac often presents with diarrhea, bloating, and steatorrhea, but this client’s hematochezia, fever, and elevated CRP are more consistent with inflammatory bowel disease.
• Administer an enema: This intervention is contraindicated in clients with bowel inflammation due to risk of worsening irritation or triggering perforation.
• Provide a gluten-free diet: While effective in celiac disease, it does not address the inflammation and malabsorption specific to Crohn’s disease.
• Prepare for surgery: Surgery is not the first-line intervention in Crohn’s unless complications like obstruction or perforation occur; conservative management is prioritized initially.
• Abrupt decrease in pain level: This is concerning for ruptured appendix and peritonitis, which are not primary features of Crohn’s disease progression.
• Abdominal rigidity: This is a sign of peritonitis, usually from perforation, which is not the presenting concern for this client with Crohn’s disease.
• Presence of steatorrhea: Steatorrhea is more typical of celiac disease or pancreatic insufficiency rather than Crohn’s, which more commonly presents with bloody stools.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Pale, oily stools: Celiac disease causes malabsorption due to an immune response to gluten, leading to steatorrhea. The stools are typically pale, foul-smelling, and oily because of impaired fat absorption.
B. Redcurrant, jelly-like stools: This type of stool is characteristic of intussusception, a condition where part of the intestine telescopes into itself, causing bleeding and mucus, not celiac disease.
C. Increased hemoglobin level: Children with celiac disease often experience iron deficiency anemia due to malabsorption, which lowers hemoglobin levels. An increase in hemoglobin would not be expected.
D. Hematemesis: Vomiting blood is not a typical finding in celiac disease. It is more commonly associated with upper gastrointestinal bleeding from ulcers or esophageal varices.
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