A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old male client. The parent states, "He has started playing with dolls since our baby was born. Does this indicate he will identify as a female as he grows up?" Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"You will also find he will want to wear girts clothes, including dresses, as well”
"Gender identity is generally not established until the child is around five years old”
"At two years of age, toddlers often engage in play that imitates adult actions."
"When a male toddler chooses to play with dolls, it is an indication he will later identify as a female."
The Correct Answer is C
A. "You will also find he will want to wear girls' clothes, including dresses, as well.": This response incorrectly assumes that playing with dolls predicts future behavior regarding gender expression, which is not accurate. It also may cause unnecessary worry for the parent.
B. "Gender identity is generally not established until the child is around five years old.": While partially true, this response does not directly address the parent's concern about the current behavior. It misses the opportunity to explain that imitating caregiving is a normal developmental stage.
C. "At two years of age, toddlers often engage in play that imitates adult actions.": This response correctly explains that toddlers naturally mimic the behavior they observe in adults, including caregiving activities, without it indicating future gender identity. Play is a normal part of development at this age.
D. "When a male toddler chooses to play with dolls, it is an indication he will later identify as a female.": This statement is inaccurate and misleading. A toddler’s choice of toys reflects curiosity and imitation, not a prediction of future gender identity or roles.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E","F","G","H"]
Explanation
- Temperature 35.3°C (95.5°F): Hypothermia following surgery is concerning because it may reflect poor perfusion, internal bleeding, or shock. Immediate warming measures and evaluation are necessary to prevent further deterioration.
- Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg: The client’s blood pressure is lower than previous values and indicates potential hypovolemia or ongoing blood loss. Hypotension post-surgery must be urgently addressed to avoid progression to shock.
- Skin cool and moist to touch: Cool, moist skin is an early clinical sign of decreased tissue perfusion and shock. When found alongside hypotension and hypothermia, it suggests that circulatory compromise may already be developing.
- Moderate amount of sanguineous drainage noted on lower dressing: Moderate bleeding post-laparoscopic surgery is abnormal. This finding, in combination with hypotension and other signs of poor perfusion, strongly suggests possible internal bleeding requiring urgent provider notification.
- Hypoactive bowel sounds: Hypoactive bowel sounds are expected after abdominal surgery due to anesthesia and reduced gut motility. They are not an immediate sign of a critical complication unless accompanied by abdominal distension or severe pain, they should however be monitored.
- Heart rate 60/min: A heart rate of 60/min is at the lower limit of normal. Although 60/min is still technically within normal range, the trend of decreasing heart rate from baseline 90 beats/min, especially in the setting of hypotension and signs of poor perfusion, is concerning. This decline may indicate worsening hemodynamic status and must be monitored closely for further deterioration..
- Pedal pulse +1 bilateral: Diminished pedal pulses (+1) indicate reduced peripheral circulation. In isolation, it may not be critical, but when combined with hypotension and cool skin, it becomes part of the overall picture suggesting decreased perfusion and should be monitored carefully.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
- Seizures: The client’s symptoms of severe hypertension, persistent headache, hyperreflexia, proteinuria, and low platelet count strongly indicate severe preeclampsia, a condition that can rapidly progress to eclampsia, where seizures occur. This is a critical obstetric emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent maternal and fetal morbidity.
- Hypoglycemia: The client’s blood glucose level is 85 mg/dL, which is within the normal range. There are no signs such as diaphoresis, confusion, or weakness that would suggest hypoglycemia, and this condition is unrelated to the client's primary diagnosis of severe preeclampsia.
- Cervical insufficiency: Cervical insufficiency typically causes painless cervical dilation and is associated with second-trimester pregnancy losses. The client is at 31 weeks with no reported cervical changes, contractions, or painless dilation, making this complication unlikely in the current clinical scenario.
- Placental abruption: Severe hypertension increases the risk of placental abruption due to damage to the placental blood vessels. Signs of decreased fetal movement and the high-risk profile of preeclampsia support the concern that abruption could occur, leading to serious maternal and fetal compromise.
- Heart failure: Although the client has some edema, there are no other clinical signs such as dyspnea, crackles, or orthopnea that would suggest heart failure. The edema seen here is consistent with preeclampsia rather than decompensated cardiac function.
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