A nurse is caring for a 26-year-old female client who is at 26 weeks of gestation in the antepartum unit.
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.
The Correct Answer is []
Rationale for Correct Condition
Preterm labor is defined as the onset of regular contractions leading to cervical change before 37 weeks of gestation. This client’s symptoms, including uterine contractions every 4–5 minutes, cervical effacement of 50%, a positive fetal fibronectin test, and shortened cervical length, strongly indicate preterm labor rather than pyelonephritis, placental abruption, or cervical insufficiency.
Rationale for Correct Actions
Magnesium sulfate functions as a tocolytic, suppressing contractions by inhibiting calcium influx in myometrial cells, thereby delaying preterm birth and reducing neonatal complications. Betamethasone accelerates fetal lung maturity by increasing surfactant production, reducing the risk of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome if preterm delivery occurs.
Rationale for Correct Parameters
Cervical effacement is a direct indicator of labor progression, showing changes in cervical thinning that accompany dilation. Monitoring effacement allows assessment of tocolytic effectiveness. Contraction frequency reveals labor severity and the response to magnesium sulfate. Persistent contractions despite treatment indicate the need for additional interventions.
Rationale for Incorrect Conditions
Pyelonephritis causes systemic symptoms like fever, flank pain, and bacteremia rather than uterine contractions and cervical changes. Placental abruption typically presents with painful vaginal bleeding and uterine tenderness, which are absent here. Cervical insufficiency is painless and lacks regular contractions, with cervical changes occurring silently rather than progressively.
Rationale for Incorrect Actions
Urine culture identifies infection but does not directly treat preterm labor. RhoGAM is necessary for Rh-negative individuals, which is irrelevant in this case. IV hydration may help with contractions but is not a primary intervention.
Rationale for Incorrect Parameters
Flank pain suggests pyelonephritis rather than preterm labor. Vaginal bleeding is associated with abruption or miscarriage, not preterm labor without cervical rupture. Fetal heart rate variability is useful in fetal assessment but does not directly indicate labor progression.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","F","G"]
Explanation
Choice B rationale
Prostaglandin administration, either vaginally or orally, helps to ripen the cervix by increasing collagenase activity and water content, leading to cervical softening, thinning (effacement), and dilation, which are necessary for labor to begin.
Choice F rationale
Amniotomy, or artificial rupture of membranes (AROM), involves the deliberate rupture of the amniotic sac. This can stimulate labor by releasing prostaglandins, increasing uterine contractility, and allowing the presenting part of the fetus to descend further into the pelvis, putting pressure on the cervix.
Choice G rationale
Oxytocin is a synthetic hormone that mimics the action of endogenous oxytocin, stimulating uterine contractions. It is commonly administered intravenously to initiate or augment labor once cervical ripening has occurred or the cervix is favorable.
Choice A rationale
Epidural anesthesia is a method of pain relief during labor, not a method for inducing labor. It provides regional analgesia by blocking nerve impulses in the lower body.
Choice C rationale
Bed rest is generally not recommended for labor induction and can even be counterproductive. Ambulation and positional changes can help to encourage fetal descent and uterine activity.
Choice D rationale
Vitamin supplementation is important for overall maternal and fetal health during pregnancy but does not directly stimulate uterine contractions or cervical changes necessary for labor induction.
Choice E rationale
Fetal ultrasound is used to assess fetal well-being, presentation, and amniotic fluid volume but does not initiate the process of labor induction. .
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
The complication that poses the greatest risk for the client is hemorrhage as evidenced by their amount of lochia.
Rationale for correct answers
Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is a major concern when excessive lochia and a boggy uterus are present. The nurse’s assessment reveals a boggy fundus, which firmed with massage but then softened again, indicating uterine atony, a leading cause of PPH. Additionally, the saturation of the perineal pad with lochia rubra and small clots suggests ongoing bleeding that requires close monitoring.
Rationale for incorrect Response 1 options
- Infection: No fever (≥38°C or 100.4°F) or foul-smelling lochia, which would indicate postpartum endometritis.
- Thrombophlebitis: No calf pain, swelling, or localized tenderness suggesting deep vein thrombosis.
- Mastitis: Breasts are soft, warm, and tender but without redness or localized pain, making mastitis unlikely.
Rationale for incorrect Response 2 options
- Breast tenderness: Expected due to milk production, not indicative of infection or complications.
- Calf pain: No evidence of thrombophlebitis or deep vein thrombosis.
- Fever: Temperature is normal at 37.2°C, ruling out systemic infection.
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