A nurse is caring for a 28-year-old female client in the emergency department. The client is experiencing symptoms suggesting the risk of preterm birth.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.
The nurse should identify that the client is at the greatest risk for preterm birth due to fetal fibronectin:
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
The nurse should identify that the client is at the greatest risk for preterm birth due to:
Response 1: B) being higher than normal (fetal fibronectin: 0.09 mcg/mL is higher than the normal level of ≤ 0.05 mcg/mL).
Response 2: B) Nitrazine and ferning tests negative
Here's the
- Fetal Fibronectin: Fetal fibronectin is a protein found between the amniotic sac and the uterine lining. Levels greater than 0.05 mcg/mL (like 0.09 mcg/mL) indicate an increased risk of preterm labor.
- Nitrazine and Ferning Tests: Both tests being negative indicates that there is no rupture of membranes. Even though these tests are negative, the elevated fetal fibronectin level still indicates a risk for preterm birth.
So the completed sentence would be: The nurse should identify that the client is at the greatest risk for preterm birth due to fetal fibronectin being higher than normal and Nitrazine and ferning tests negative.
This combination of findings suggests that preterm labor may be imminent despite the lack of membrane rupture. The elevated fetal fibronectin is a strong indicator of risk.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
The nurse should prioritize monitoring the client's fundal tone followed by the client's blood pressure. Here's why:
- Fundal Tone: The client's fundus is boggy and not firming up with massage. This is a priority concern as it indicates uterine atony, which is a major cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
- Blood Pressure: Monitoring blood pressure is crucial as the client is experiencing heavy lochia, and a decrease in blood pressure can indicate hypovolemic shock due to blood loss.
So, the completed sentence would be:
- The nurse should first monitor the client's fundal tone followed by the client's blood pressure.
Taking care of immediate risks and stabilizing the patient is key in such cases.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Informing the client to expect dark-colored stools is inaccurate for methotrexate administration. Dark stools typically indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, not a side effect of methotrexate.
Choice B rationale
Wearing two pairs of gloves is necessary when handling methotrexate as it is a cytotoxic drug. This protects healthcare workers from accidental exposure to the medication, which can be harmful.
Choice C rationale
Methotrexate is typically administered intramuscularly or orally, not subcutaneously. Administering it subcutaneously is incorrect and would not be effective for treating an ectopic pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
While it is essential to counsel the client on safe intercourse practices, instructing to use a condom for only 7 days post-administration is not specific or relevant to the methotrexate therapy for ectopic pregnancy.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.