A nurse is caring for a 28-year-old female client who is gravida 1 para 0 at 32 weeks of gestation in the prenatal unit.
The nurse is providing teaching about tocolytic medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse include? Select all that apply.
"I will inject this medication under your skin."
"You may experience a headache after receiving this medication."
"It is common for this medication to make you feel jittery."
"This medication should decrease your contractions."
"I'll check your reflexes frequently while you are receiving this medication."
"This medication can make your heart beat faster."
"This medication can increase your blood pressure."
Correct Answer : B,C,D,E,F
B. "You may experience a headache after receiving this medication."
- Some tocolytic medications can cause headaches as a side effect.
C. "It is common for this medication to make you feel jittery."
- Tocolytic medications, such as terbutaline, can cause nervousness or jitteriness.
D. "This medication should decrease your contractions."
- The primary purpose of tocolytic medication is to decrease uterine contractions and delay preterm labor.
E. "I'll check your reflexes frequently while you are receiving this medication."
- Some tocolytic medications, like magnesium sulfate, require monitoring of deep tendon reflexes to assess for potential toxicity.
F. "This medication can make your heart beat faster."
- Tocolytic medications, such as terbutaline, can increase heart rate.
These statements provide the client with a comprehensive understanding of the purpose of the medication and its potential side effects.
The incorrect statements are:
- A. "I will inject this medication under your skin.": Tocolytic medications are typically administered orally, intravenously, or intramuscularly, not subcutaneously.
- G. "This medication can increase your blood pressure.": Some tocolytic medications, like magnesium sulfate, can actually lower blood pressure rather than increase it.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Blood pressure should be assessed as opioid analgesics can cause hypotension, which can be detrimental to both mother and fetus during labor.
Choice B rationale
Fetal heart rate monitoring is essential as opioids can cross the placenta and potentially cause fetal bradycardia or distress, thus necessitating close monitoring.
Choice C rationale
Deep tendon reflexes are not commonly affected by opioid analgesics and therefore are not a primary assessment when administering these medications during labor.
Choice D rationale
Blood glucose levels are not typically influenced by opioid analgesics in the context of labor, so this is not a relevant assessment for this scenario.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cesarean birth is not necessarily required for GBS-positive clients as long as IV antibiotic prophylaxis is administered during labor to prevent transmission to the newborn.
Choice B rationale
IV antibiotic prophylaxis, typically with penicillin or ampicillin, is given to GBS-positive clients during labor to prevent neonatal GBS infection.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a vaginal culture at 39 weeks of gestation is not necessary if the client was already screened and found positive for GBS at 36 weeks.
Choice D rationale
Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis, not GBS infection; thus, it is not appropriate for this scenario. .
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