A nurse is caring for a 44-year-old female client in the emergency department.
The client is experiencing
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Peritonitis
Peritonitis is an infection of the peritoneum (the lining of the abdominal cavity), often related to peritoneal dialysis. It can present with abdominal pain, fever, rigidity, and rebound tenderness,
consistent with the client’s symptoms. Cloudy effluent is also a common sign of peritoneal dialysis- related peritonitis.
Peritoneal dialysis
Peritoneal dialysis is a type of dialysis that uses the peritoneum (abdominal lining) to filter blood. If there is an issue with the dialysis process, it could lead to complications such as peritonitis. This is consistent with the client's symptoms, such as abdominal pain, fever, nausea, vomiting, and cloudy effluent.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Atorvastatin is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels in the blood. Reducing cholesterol levels helps to prevent the progression of atherosclerosis (plaque buildup in the arteries), which is a major cause of chronic stable angina. Statins are commonly prescribed to manage the underlying condition that leads to angina by stabilizing plaques and reducing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.
B. Digoxin is a medication used to treat heart failure and certain types of abnormal heart rhythms (arrhythmias). It works by increasing the force of heart contractions and controlling heart rate. While it can be helpful in specific cases of heart failure or arrhythmias, it is not typically used for the management of chronic stable angina.
C. Furosemide is a diuretic used to treat conditions such as heart failure and edema by removing excess fluid from the body. It helps to reduce fluid buildup but does not address the underlying cause of chronic stable angina or improve coronary artery function. It is not a primary medication for managing angina.
D. Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody used primarily to treat certain types of cancer and autoimmune diseases by targeting specific immune cells. It is not used to treat chronic stable angina or related cardiovascular conditions. It does not play a role in managing cholesterol levels or improving coronary artery health.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Gum bleeding can be a sign of thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) and is concerning because it indicates a potential for bleeding complications. However, while it's significant, it might not be the most urgent symptom in the context of HIT compared to symptoms indicating acute thrombosis.
B. A hemoglobin level of 14 g/dL is generally within the normal range for most adults. In the context of HIT, this level does not indicate any immediate abnormality or severe issue related to anemia or bleeding, making it less concerning compared to other symptoms that might indicate acute complications.
C. Tachycardia (increased heart rate) and shortness of breath are concerning symptoms in the context of HIT. These symptoms can be indicative of a thrombotic event such as a pulmonary embolism (PE) or deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which are serious complications of HIT. The presence of these symptoms requires urgent evaluation as they suggest possible life-threatening complications.
D. Petechiae are small, pinpoint red or purple spots that appear due to bleeding under the skin, often associated with low platelet counts. While petechiae are a concerning sign and indicate bleeding issues, the presence of tachycardia and shortness of breath generally represents a more immediate threat to the patient's life due to potential thromboembolic events.
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