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A nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin 1 g by intermittent intravenous (IV) bolus over 30 minutes. Available is cefazolin 1 g in 100 mL dextrose 5% in water (D5W). The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero. Only enter numbers and decimals. Do not enter any letters in your answer.)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is ["33"]

To calculate the infusion rate, we'll use the following formula:

Infusion rate (gtt/min) = (Volume to be infused (mL) / Time (min)) ) x Drop factor (gtt/mL)

First, calculate the total volume to be infused:

100 mL / 30 min = 3.33 mL/min

Then, multiply the volume per minute by the drop factor:

3.33 mL/min x 10 gtt/mL = 33.3 gtt/min

Therefore, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 33 gtt/min.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B. In a disaster situation, prioritizing care for clients with life-threatening emergencies is crucial to ensure that those in the most critical condition receive immediate attention. This aligns with triage principles and ensures that limited resources are used effectively.
A. While addressing ADLs is important, it is secondary to addressing life-threatening emergencies in a disaster scenario.
C. Discharging stable clients can help increase bed availability but should be considered after addressing immediate life-threatening needs.
D. Stocking additional supplies is necessary but should follow after ensuring that life-threatening conditions are managed.

A. A client who has a leg and ankle fracture B. A client who reports flank pain radiating to the groin C. A client who has a raised red rash on the abdomen D. A client who has expiratory stridor

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. A leg and ankle fracture is serious but typically not life-threatening compared to issues involving airway obstruction or severe bleeding.
B. Flank pain radiating to the groin may indicate a kidney stone or other condition, but it is less urgent than airway obstruction.
C. A raised red rash on the abdomen could be a sign of a less urgent condition, such as a viral infection or allergic reaction, and does not require immediate intervention compared to respiratory distress.
D. Expiratory stridor indicates upper airway obstruction or severe respiratory distress, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. Stridor suggests possible airway compromise, which needs to be addressed urgently to prevent respiratory failure.

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A nurse is working with a limited staff because of a severe storm in the area. The facility incident commander has initiated disaster protocols. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

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Correct Answer is D

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