A nurse is caring for a 62-year-old client with diabetes who has a new prescription for metoclopramide (Reglan). Which of the following statements is true regarding metoclopramide (Reglan)? (Select All That Apply.)
"Complications of this medication include tardive dyskinesia and prolonged QT interval."
"The IV form of this medication is used for control of postoperative and chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, as well as facilitation of small bowel intubation and examination of the GI tract."
"Complications of this medication include tardive dyskinesia and sedation."
"The oral form is used for diabetic gastroparesis (delayed stomach emptying with gas and bloating) and management of GERD through its ability to increase gastric motility."
Correct Answer : A,B,C,D
A. "Complications of this medication include tardive dyskinesia and prolonged QT interval." This is correct. Metoclopramide (Reglan) can cause side effects such as tardive dyskinesia, a movement disorder, and may prolong the QT interval, which can increase the risk of arrhythmias.
B. "The IV form of this medication is used for control of postoperative and chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, as well as facilitation of small bowel intubation and examination of the GI tract." This is correct. The IV form of metoclopramide is commonly used for these indications, particularly for nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy or surgery, as well as aiding in small bowel intubation.
C. "Complications of this medication include tardive dyskinesia and sedation." This is correct. In addition to tardive dyskinesia, metoclopramide can also cause sedation, making patients feel drowsy or lethargic.
D. "The oral form is used for diabetic gastroparesis (delayed stomach emptying with gas and bloating) and management of GERD through its ability to increase gastric motility." This is correct. The oral form of metoclopramide is frequently used to treat diabetic gastroparesis by improving gastric emptying, as well as managing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) by enhancing motility.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Hyperglycemia: While metformin is used to manage blood glucose levels in clients with diabetes, its interaction with contrast dye does not directly lead to hyperglycemia. However, the risk for kidney injury, which can affect glucose regulation, is a concern.
B. Acute renal failure: This is correct. The combination of metformin and iodine-containing contrast dye increases the risk of acute renal failure, also known as contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN). This occurs because contrast agents can cause kidney damage, and metformin is excreted by the kidneys. If renal function is impaired, the buildup of metformin can lead to lactic acidosis.
C. Acute pancreatitis: While acute pancreatitis is a possible side effect of metformin in some individuals, the primary concern with iodine-containing contrast dye is renal failure, not pancreatitis.
D. Acute liver failure: Metformin is primarily metabolized by the kidneys, not the liver, and does not commonly cause liver failure. Renal failure is the more pressing concern with the use of contrast dye in clients taking metformin.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Glucagon is not used to treat thyroid cancer; treatments for thyroid cancer often include radioactive iodine therapy or surgery.
B. Glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia in diabetic patients when they are unable to take oral glucose. It works by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream, rapidly raising blood sugar levels.
C. Diabetes insipidus involves a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone or kidney insensitivity to it and is treated with desmopressin or adequate hydration, not glucagon.
D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is typically managed with lifestyle changes, oral antidiabetic agents, or insulin. Glucagon is not used for routine management but is reserved for severe hypoglycemia emergencies.
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