A nurse is preparing to provide an in-service to the community about misoprostol (Cytotec). Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching to the community?
"An indication for this medication is used in clients taking short-term NSAIDs to prevent duodenal ulcers."
"This medication is indicated for female clients expecting a child or are currently pregnant."
"This medication is contraindicated for female clients expecting a child or are currently pregnant."
"An indication for this medication is used in clients to prevent stress-induced ulcers."
The Correct Answer is C
A. 4 teaspoons – This is incorrect because 4 teaspoons would provide 400 mg (100 mg x 4 = 400 mg), but the correct dose per administration is 400 mg. However, this is not the correct calculation, as only 2 teaspoons are needed.
B. 2 teaspoons – This is correct. The prescribed dose is 400 mg, and since the medication concentration is 100 mg per teaspoon, 2 teaspoons (100 mg x 2 = 200 mg) is the correct dose for each administration.
C. 1 teaspoon – This is incorrect because 1 teaspoon would only provide 100 mg, and the prescribed dose is 400 mg. This is not enough to meet the prescribed dose.
D. 3 teaspoons – This is incorrect because 3 teaspoons would provide 300 mg (100 mg x 3 = 300 mg), which is not enough to meet the prescribed 400 mg dose.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Metformin does not typically cause hypoglycemia because it works by decreasing hepatic glucose production and improving insulin sensitivity, not directly lowering blood sugar levels.
B. Somnolence could indicate lactic acidosis, a rare but serious adverse effect of metformin that warrants immediate medical attention.
C. Fluid retention is not a known adverse effect of metformin. Other medications, such as certain thiazolidinediones, are associated with this complication.
D. Hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of metformin; instead, it helps manage blood glucose levels in clients with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Nausea is the symptom prochlorperazine is intended to treat, so its occurrence would suggest that the medication is not effective rather than being a complication.
B. Prolonged QT interval is not a typical complication of prochlorperazine; it is more commonly associated with medications like ondansetron.
C. Restlessness can indicate akathisia, a potential extrapyramidal side effect of prochlorperazine. This condition involves an intense feeling of restlessness and the need to move, commonly associated with dopamine antagonists.
D. Vomiting is a symptom treated by prochlorperazine and would likely occur due to inadequate control rather than being a complication of the drug itself.
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