A nurse is caring for a 63-year-old male client in the emergency department.
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify which cranial nerve is being assessed, two actions the nurse should take to further assess that cranial nerve, and two parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.
The Correct Answer is []
Condition: cranial nerve iii
2 actions: assess pupillary constriction, assess lateral eye movement
2 parameters: pupil constriction, lateral eye movement
Rationale for correct condition
cranial nerve iii (oculomotor nerve) controls most extraocular movements and pupillary constriction. stroke affecting this nerve can cause ptosis, impaired eye movement, and abnormal pupillary response. in this client with stroke symptoms and altered neurologic status, assessing cranial nerve iii function is critical to detect brainstem involvement. pupillary dysfunction may indicate increased intracranial pressure or herniation. thus, cranial nerve iii assessment provides vital information about neurological progression.
Rationale for correct actions
assessing pupillary constriction tests the parasympathetic fibers of cranial nerve iii responsible for the pupillary light reflex, critical for detecting brainstem integrity. abnormal or unequal pupil responses can indicate oculomotor nerve damage or increased intracranial pressure. assessing lateral eye movement checks for oculomotor nerve motor function, as it innervates most extraocular muscles controlling eye movements except the lateral rectus and superior oblique. impaired lateral gaze or eye deviation may signal cranial nerve iii palsy due to stroke-related ischemia or compression.
Rationale for correct parameters
monitoring pupil constriction quantitatively tracks parasympathetic function and neurological status; normal pupil size ranges from 2 to 4 mm in bright light. changes in pupil size or reaction can signal worsening cerebral edema or brain herniation. monitoring lateral eye movement evaluates motor function of extraocular muscles; loss of coordinated movement indicates cranial nerve iii dysfunction. recovery or deterioration of these parameters guides treatment and prognosis in stroke patients.
Rationale for incorrect conditions
cranial nerve vii (facial nerve) controls facial expressions but not eye movement or pupil function, so it is less relevant here. cranial nerve vi (abducens nerve) controls lateral rectus muscle for lateral eye movement but does not control pupillary constriction, thus incomplete for this assessment. cranial nerve ii (optic nerve) manages visual acuity and pupillary light afferent signals but does not control eye movement or pupillary constriction efferent response, so it is insufficient alone.
Rationale for incorrect actions
assessing movement of facial expressions tests cranial nerve vii, unrelated to pupillary reflex or extraocular movement here. assessing ability to raise eyebrows is also a facial nerve function, irrelevant for eye motor or pupillary assessment. assessing visual acuity involves cranial nerve ii and does not directly reflect cranial nerve iii dysfunction.
Rationale for incorrect parameters
visual acuity monitors optic nerve function, unrelated to pupillary constriction or extraocular movement controlled by cranial nerve iii. tear production relates to facial nerve function and lacrimal glands, not relevant to oculomotor nerve assessment. taste is mediated by facial and glossopharyngeal nerves, unrelated to eye movement or pupil constriction.
Take home points
- cranial nerve iii controls most eye movements and pupillary constriction, critical in stroke assessment.
- pupillary light reflex and lateral eye movement are key clinical actions for cranial nerve iii evaluation.
- abnormal pupil size or movement indicates brainstem involvement or increased intracranial pressure.
- differentiate cranial nerve iii dysfunction from cranial nerves ii, vi, and vii for accurate neurological diagnosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Obtaining a pulse oximeter reading from two extremities assesses peripheral perfusion and oxygen saturation, providing data on systemic oxygen delivery. This action is unrelated to identifying an extra heart sound, which originates from cardiac mechanics and blood flow dynamics within the heart's chambers and valves.
Choice B rationale
The bell of the stethoscope is designed to optimally transmit low-frequency sounds due to its larger surface area and lighter pressure application. Extra heart sounds, such as S3 or S4 gallops or certain murmurs, are typically low-pitched and therefore best appreciated with the bell, allowing for clearer differentiation from normal heart sounds.
Choice C rationale
Auscultating for one minute with the diaphragm primarily transmits high-frequency sounds due to its taut membrane and firm application. While useful for normal heart sounds (S1, S2) and high-pitched murmurs, it may obscure or poorly transmit the low-frequency characteristics of most extra heart sounds, leading to their non-detection.
Choice D rationale
Using a Doppler ultrasound primarily detects blood flow and its direction, often used to assess peripheral pulses or vascular patency. While it can detect cardiac motion, it does not provide the nuanced auditory information necessary to differentiate and characterize specific extra heart sounds based on their timing, pitch, and quality within the cardiac cycle.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Measuring capillary glucose assesses glycemic control, which is important in diabetes management, but it does not directly provide data to support signs of peripheral arterial disease (PAD), such as shiny skin and absent hair growth on the lower legs. These findings are indicative of impaired blood flow, not necessarily immediate glucose levels.
Choice B rationale
Shiny skin and lack of hair on the lower legs in a client with diabetes are classic signs of peripheral arterial disease (PAD), resulting from compromised blood flow due to atherosclerosis. Palpating the dorsalis pedis pulses directly assesses arterial perfusion to the feet, providing crucial objective data to support the presence and severity of PAD. Normal pulse strength is 2+.
Choice C rationale
Asking about weakness or hunger assesses symptoms of hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia, which are metabolic complications of diabetes. While important for overall diabetes management, these symptoms do not directly relate to or provide further data for the observed integumentary changes indicative of compromised peripheral circulation.
Choice D rationale
Comparing the range of motion of both legs assesses musculoskeletal integrity and joint function. While mobility can be affected by diabetic neuropathy or arthropathy, it does not directly provide additional data for the observed changes in skin and hair, which are specifically linked to vascular insufficiency in the lower extremities.
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