A nurse is caring for a 72-year-old client who suddenly becomes weak and lightheaded. The cardiac monitor shows second-degree AV block Type II. The client is pale and diaphoretic with a blood pressure of 82/48 mm Hg and a heart rate of 42 beats per minute. Which collaborative intervention should the nurse anticipate implementing?
Administer furosemide (Lasix) 80 mg IV as ordered
Administer a thrombolytic medication
Prepare for transcutaneous pacing
Prepare for synchronized cardioversion
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Furosemide is a diuretic used for fluid overload in heart failure, not for second-degree AV block Type II, which causes bradycardia and hypotension. Administering it could worsen hypotension by reducing preload, making it inappropriate for this client’s acute conduction issue.
Choice B reason: Thrombolytic medications are used for acute myocardial infarction or stroke to dissolve clots. Second-degree AV block Type II is a conduction disorder, not a thrombotic event, so thrombolytics are irrelevant and could cause harmful bleeding in this scenario.
Choice C reason: Second-degree AV block Type II causes intermittent failure of atrial impulses to conduct, leading to bradycardia and hypotension. Transcutaneous pacing restores heart rate and cardiac output, stabilizing the client’s hemodynamics, making it the most appropriate intervention for this life-threatening rhythm disturbance.
Choice D reason: Synchronized cardioversion is used for tachyarrhythmias like atrial fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia. Second-degree AV block Type II is a bradyarrhythmia, so cardioversion is inappropriate. Pacing is needed to increase heart rate and address the client’s symptoms effectively.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Benzodiazepines enhance GABA activity, leading to rapid anxiety relief but with a high risk of tolerance and dependence. Teaching about this risk is critical to ensure the client understands the need for medical supervision, potential withdrawal symptoms, and strategies to prevent misuse or long-term dependency.
Choice B reason: Taking benzodiazepines with food may reduce gastrointestinal upset, but the timing is not critical for efficacy. This instruction is less urgent than addressing dependence, as benzodiazepines are effective regardless of meal timing, and the primary concern is their addictive potential.
Choice C reason: Discontinuing benzodiazepines abruptly can cause severe withdrawal symptoms, including seizures, due to their effect on GABA receptors. This is dangerous advice, as gradual tapering under medical supervision is required, making this choice incorrect and less critical than teaching about dependence risks.
Choice D reason: Increased caffeine consumption can counteract benzodiazepine effects by stimulating the central nervous system, potentially worsening anxiety. This is incorrect advice, as it could reduce the medication’s efficacy and exacerbate symptoms, making it less relevant than educating about dependence and tolerance risks.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Recommending both treatments due to insurance coverage is not therapeutic, as it does not address the clinical rationale. Antidepressants and therapy target different aspects of depression (neurochemical and behavioral), and this response fails to explain their complementary roles effectively.
Choice B reason: Antidepressants correct neurotransmitter imbalances (e.g., serotonin) to alleviate depressive symptoms, while therapy (e.g., CBT) addresses maladaptive thought patterns and behaviors, promoting long-term coping skills. This combination enhances recovery, making this the most therapeutic explanation for the client’s treatment plan.
Choice C reason: Suggesting medications are temporary implies the client will stop treatment, which may not be true for chronic depression. This undermines the importance of ongoing management and therapy’s role in behavioral change, making it less therapeutic and potentially discouraging.
Choice D reason: Asking about reservations may encourage dialogue but does not directly explain the need for therapy alongside medication. It sidesteps the clinical rationale for combined treatment, which is critical for understanding the comprehensive approach to depression management.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
