Which of the four classes of medications used for Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is considered the safest because of low incidence of side effects and lack of physiological dependence?
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)
Tricyclics
Benzodiazepines
Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs)
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: SSRIs increase serotonin levels in the brain, effectively managing GAD with a low risk of dependence. Side effects like nausea or headache are generally mild and transient, making SSRIs safer compared to other classes, as they do not cause significant physiological dependence or severe adverse effects.
Choice B reason: Tricyclic antidepressants affect multiple neurotransmitters, effectively treating GAD but with significant side effects like anticholinergic effects (dry mouth, constipation) and potential cardiotoxicity. They carry a higher risk of overdose and side effects compared to SSRIs, making them less safe for long-term use in GAD.
Choice C reason: Benzodiazepines enhance GABA activity, providing rapid anxiety relief but with a high risk of physiological dependence and withdrawal. Side effects like sedation and cognitive impairment, along with abuse potential, make them less safe than SSRIs for long-term GAD management.
Choice D reason: MAOIs inhibit monoamine oxidase, increasing neurotransmitter levels for GAD treatment. However, they have significant side effects, including hypertensive crises from dietary tyramine, and require strict dietary restrictions. Their risk profile and potential for severe interactions make them less safe than SSRIs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Independent atrial and ventricular beating occurs in conditions like third-degree heart block, where AV node conduction fails completely. The description lacks specific rhythm details, but the SA node firing with non-conducted beats suggests a partial conduction issue, not complete dissociation.
Choice B reason: An atrial rate of 350 bpm or greater with a slower ventricular rate suggests atrial flutter or fibrillation. However, the description of regular SA node firing with non-conducted beats points to a conduction block, not a rapid atrial rhythm, making this less likely.
Choice C reason: The SA node firing regularly with non-conducted beats describes a second-degree AV block, where some atrial impulses fail to reach the ventricles due to AV node or bundle branch issues. This matches the symptoms and is the most accurate interpretation of the rhythm.
Choice D reason: A delayed but not blocked AV node impulse describes first-degree heart block, where all beats conduct with a prolonged PR interval. The description of non-conducted beats indicates a more severe conduction issue, such as second-degree block, making this choice incorrect.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: ECT induces controlled seizures to treat severe depression, often causing short-term memory loss due to temporary disruption of hippocampal function. This is a common side effect, and clients should be informed to expect potential memory difficulties post-treatment.
Choice B reason: Atropine is used pre-ECT to reduce secretions, not post-procedure. Administering it afterward is unnecessary, as its role is to prevent airway complications during the procedure, making this an incorrect teaching point for ECT.
Choice C reason: Family attendance during ECT is not permitted due to the controlled medical environment, anesthesia, and seizure induction, which require privacy and safety protocols. This instruction is incorrect, as only medical personnel are present during the procedure.
Choice D reason: ECT is performed under general anesthesia, so the client is unconscious, not awake, during the procedure. Being awake would prevent safe seizure induction and monitoring, making this an incorrect and unsafe teaching point.
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