A nurse is caring for a 77-year-old African American male client in the emergency department.
Based on the clients progression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply:
The nurse should prepare to administer tPA.
The nurse should position the client on his right side.
The nurse should prepare to administer a bolus of 50% dextrose.
The nurse should anticipate the need for endotracheal intubation.
The nurse should prepare to administer antihypertensive medication
The nurse should use a calm and reassuring approach when interacting with the client.
The nurse should restrict all fluids and sodium intake.
Correct Answer : A,D,E,F
Choice A rationale: The nurse should prepare to administer tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). This medication is used to dissolve blood clots that have formed in the blood vessels of the brain. The client’s CT scan shows a large area of decreased attenuation in the left hemisphere, which is indicative of a stroke. The administration of tPA is time-sensitive and should be initiated as soon as possible after the onset of symptoms if there is no evidence of hemorrhage on the CT scan.
Choice B rationale: Positioning the client on his right side is not necessarily beneficial in this situation. The client is experiencing symptoms of a stroke, and positioning will not alleviate these symptoms. It is more important to focus on interventions that can potentially reverse the effects of the stroke, such as the administration of tPA.
Choice C rationale: There is no indication that the client requires a bolus of 50% dextrose. The client’s blood glucose levels are within normal limits, and hypoglycemia is not a concern at this time. Administering a bolus of 50% dextrose without indication could potentially lead to hyperglycemia.
Choice D rationale: The nurse should anticipate the need for endotracheal intubation. The client’s condition is deteriorating, and he is now unresponsive to verbal stimuli and only responds to painful stimuli. This indicates a decreased level of consciousness, which can compromise the client’s airway. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the client’s airway and ensure adequate ventilation.
Choice E rationale: The nurse should prepare to administer antihypertensive medication. The client’s blood pressure is significantly elevated, which can further exacerbate the damage caused by a stroke. Antihypertensive medication can help to lower the client’s blood pressure and reduce the risk of further complications.
Choice F rationale: The nurse should use a calm and reassuring approach when interacting with the client. This can help to reduce anxiety and promote a sense of safety. It is important to remember that the client may be scared and confused due to his symptoms, and a calm and reassuring approach can help to alleviate these feelings.
Choice G rationale: Restricting all fluids and sodium intake is not indicated in this situation. While fluid and sodium balance is important in stroke patients, there is no indication that the client is fluid overloaded or has a condition that would require sodium restriction. Furthermore, the client has been prescribed IV fluids, indicating that fluid restriction is not appropriate at this time.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cushing’s Triad, which includes bradycardia (low heart rate), irregular respiration, and widened pulse pressure, is a nervous system response that could prevent brainstem ischemia. Brainstem ischemia is a condition where there is insufficient blood flow to the brainstem, which can lead to cell death.
Choice B rationale
While tachycardia (high heart rate) is a serious condition, it is not typically prevented by Cushing’s Triad.
Choice C rationale
Agonal breathing, which is characterized by gasping, labored breathing, particularly when lying flat, is not typically prevented by Cushing’s Triad.
Choice D rationale
Chest pain is not typically prevented by Cushing’s Triad. Cushing’s Triad is a response to increased intracranial pressure, not a cardiac condition.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Occupational exposure to pesticides, heavy metals, and industrial toxins is a known environmental risk factor for Parkinson’s disease. Work history helps identify neurotoxic exposure linked to disease onset.
Choice B rationale: Family history may suggest genetic predisposition, but idiopathic Parkinson’s is more often linked to environmental factors. Genetics play a role, but exposure history is more actionable during assessment.
Choice C rationale: Coffee intake has been inversely associated with Parkinson’s risk, but it’s not a diagnostic or causative factor. This question does not guide clinical assessment or identify potential exposures.
Choice D rationale: Timing of last physical may inform general health status but does not address etiology or risk factors specific to Parkinson’s disease. It lacks relevance to environmental or occupational exposure.
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