A nurse is caring for a 77-year-old African American male client in the emergency department.
Based on the clients progression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply:
The nurse should prepare to administer tPA.
The nurse should position the client on his right side.
The nurse should prepare to administer a bolus of 50% dextrose.
The nurse should anticipate the need for endotracheal intubation.
The nurse should prepare to administer antihypertensive medication
The nurse should use a calm and reassuring approach when interacting with the client.
The nurse should restrict all fluids and sodium intake.
Correct Answer : A,D,E,F
Choice A rationale: The nurse should prepare to administer tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). This medication is used to dissolve blood clots that have formed in the blood vessels of the brain. The client’s CT scan shows a large area of decreased attenuation in the left hemisphere, which is indicative of a stroke. The administration of tPA is time-sensitive and should be initiated as soon as possible after the onset of symptoms if there is no evidence of hemorrhage on the CT scan.
Choice B rationale: Positioning the client on his right side is not necessarily beneficial in this situation. The client is experiencing symptoms of a stroke, and positioning will not alleviate these symptoms. It is more important to focus on interventions that can potentially reverse the effects of the stroke, such as the administration of tPA.
Choice C rationale: There is no indication that the client requires a bolus of 50% dextrose. The client’s blood glucose levels are within normal limits, and hypoglycemia is not a concern at this time. Administering a bolus of 50% dextrose without indication could potentially lead to hyperglycemia.
Choice D rationale: The nurse should anticipate the need for endotracheal intubation. The client’s condition is deteriorating, and he is now unresponsive to verbal stimuli and only responds to painful stimuli. This indicates a decreased level of consciousness, which can compromise the client’s airway. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the client’s airway and ensure adequate ventilation.
Choice E rationale: The nurse should prepare to administer antihypertensive medication. The client’s blood pressure is significantly elevated, which can further exacerbate the damage caused by a stroke. Antihypertensive medication can help to lower the client’s blood pressure and reduce the risk of further complications.
Choice F rationale: The nurse should use a calm and reassuring approach when interacting with the client. This can help to reduce anxiety and promote a sense of safety. It is important to remember that the client may be scared and confused due to his symptoms, and a calm and reassuring approach can help to alleviate these feelings.
Choice G rationale: Restricting all fluids and sodium intake is not indicated in this situation. While fluid and sodium balance is important in stroke patients, there is no indication that the client is fluid overloaded or has a condition that would require sodium restriction. Furthermore, the client has been prescribed IV fluids, indicating that fluid restriction is not appropriate at this time.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Smoking is a risk factor for many health conditions, including headaches. However, it is not a common precipitating factor in both tension-type and cluster headaches.
Choice B rationale
Depression can be associated with both tension-type and cluster headaches, but it is not a common precipitating factor for these types of headaches.
Choice C rationale
Stress is a common precipitating factor for both tension-type and cluster headaches. Both types of headaches can be triggered by psychological factors like stress.
Choice D rationale
Poor posture can contribute to tension-type headaches by causing muscle tension in the neck and shoulders. However, it is not a common precipitating factor for cluster headaches.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Parkinson’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement, but it is not a known risk factor for subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)10111213.
Choice B rationale
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that affects memory, thinking, and behavior, but it is not a known risk factor for SAH10111213.
Choice C rationale
Being male is not a specific risk factor for SAH. Both men and women can be affected by this condition.
Choice D rationale
Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the body’s connective tissue. People with Marfan’s syndrome have a higher risk of developing aneurysms, including those in the brain, which can lead to SAH10111213. Cerebral edemaCerebral edema Explore
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.