A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with severe preeclampsia who is receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis. Which of the following findings should prompt the nurse to immediately intervene?
Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute
Urine output of 60 mL in the past two hours
Deep tendon reflexes of +2
Complaints of mild nausea and flushing
The Correct Answer is A
A. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute: A respiratory rate below 12 breaths per minute is a sign of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system, and a rate of 8 indicates potential respiratory compromise, requiring immediate intervention and possible discontinuation of the infusion.
B. Urine output of 60 mL in the past two hours: Although slightly low, this output is not yet at the critical level of concern. Urine output should be ≥30 mL/hr to ensure magnesium is excreted effectively. Continued monitoring is needed, but it does not require immediate action.
C. Deep tendon reflexes of +2: A +2 reflex is considered normal and indicates that the client is not currently experiencing neuromuscular depression. Loss or absence of reflexes would be more concerning for magnesium toxicity.
D. Complaints of mild nausea and flushing: These are common and expected side effects of magnesium sulfate therapy. While they should be documented and monitored, they do not suggest toxicity and do not require urgent intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "There is no way to predict how long it will last in each individual client.": Although experiences can vary, there are well-established physiological patterns for urinary frequency in pregnancy. This response is vague and does not offer the client helpful information about what to expect.
B. "In most cases it only lasts until the 12th week, but it will continue if you have poor bladder tone.": Urinary frequency typically improves after the first trimester but returns near term due to increased uterine pressure. This response incorrectly links its persistence to bladder tone rather than uterine changes later in pregnancy.
C. "It occurs during the first trimester and near the end of the pregnancy.": Urinary frequency is common in early pregnancy due to hormonal effects and increased blood flow to the pelvis. It usually subsides in the second trimester but returns in the third trimester as the enlarging uterus presses on the bladder again.
D. "It's a minor inconvenience, which you should ignore.": Dismissing the symptom as a minor inconvenience overlooks the importance of client education. Clients should be encouraged to report concerning symptoms and receive supportive, informative responses from healthcare providers.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. G3 T0 P2 A1 L1: This option incorrectly states that the client has had two preterm births, which she has not. She has had one full-term birth and one abortion, making the parity count inaccurate in this case.
B. G2 T1 P0 A0 L2: This count underrepresents the client’s total pregnancies (G2 instead of G3) and indicates no abortions, which contradicts the elective abortion at 9 weeks. It also incorrectly lists two living children instead of one.
C. G2 T1 P0 A1 L2: While it correctly lists the term birth and abortion, it inaccurately lists two living children and indicates the client has had only two pregnancies instead of three, making the gravida count incorrect.
D. G3 T1 P0 A1 L1: The client has had three pregnancies (G3), one term birth (T1), no preterm births (P0), one abortion (A1), and one living child (L1). This option accurately reflects her obstetric history using the GTPAL system.
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