A nurse is caring for a client who had a spinal cord injury and has paraplegia. The client is alert and oriented.
The client is repositioned every 2 hr. Passive range-of-motion exercises to lower extremities are performed once each day.
On Day 5, the client’s feet are warm, pedal pulses are 2+ bilaterally, plantar flexion contractures are noted bilaterally, and the left heel has a 1.3 cm x 1.3 cm (0.5 in x 0.5 in) area of nonblanchable erythema, with skin intact.
Which findings require intervention by the nurse?
Passive range-of-motion exercises to lower extremities performed once each day
Left heel with 1.3 cm x 1.3 cm (0.5 in x 0.5 in) area of nonblanchable erythema, skin intact
Plantar flexion contractures noted bilaterally
Pedal pulses 2+ bilaterally
Correct Answer : A,B,C
The correct answers are Choices A, B, and C.
Choice A rationale: Passive range-of-motion exercises should be performed more frequently than once each day to maintain joint mobility, prevent contractures, and stimulate circulation. Performing them only once daily is inadequate for a client with paraplegia who is immobile.
Choice B rationale: Nonblanchable erythema is a sign of a stage 1 pressure ulcer, indicating that the skin is at risk of further breakdown and infection. Immediate intervention is required to prevent progression to more severe pressure injuries.
Choice C rationale: Plantar flexion contractures can lead to significant long-term disability and complications, such as difficulty in ambulation and pain. These contractures require intervention through more frequent range-of-motion exercises, splinting, or physical therapy to prevent worsening.
Choice D rationale: Pedal pulses that are 2+ bilaterally are within normal limits and indicate adequate peripheral circulation. This finding does not require intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While colonoscopy is a screening method for colon cancer, it is not typically recommended to begin at age 60 for individuals at average risk. Instead, colonoscopy screening is usually recommended to begin at age 50 and continue every 10 years if no polyps are found.
Choice B rationale
The recommendation for an average risk individual for colon cancer is to have a fecal occult blood test every year. This test checks for hidden blood in the stool, which can be an early sign of cancer.
Choice C rationale
Sigmoidoscopy every 10 years is another screening option for colon cancer. However, it only examines the rectum and lower third of the colon, whereas a colonoscopy examines the entire colon.
Choice D rationale
Blood tests are not typically used as a primary screening method for colon cancer. They may be used in conjunction with other tests, but a blood sample alone is not sufficient for screening.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Client 1 is admitted with a new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. While this condition can cause discomfort and requires management, it is a chronic condition that does not typically present an immediate threat to the client’s health. Therefore, while this client will need to be assessed and their care plan will need to be adjusted to manage their new diagnosis, they are not the highest priority at this time.
Choice B rationale: Client 2 has a history of hyperlipidemia and has been administered Atorvastatin 20 mg PO as prescribed. Hyperlipidemia is a chronic condition that requires ongoing management, but it does not typically present an immediate threat to the client’s health. The fact that the client has been administered their medication as prescribed suggests that their condition is currently being managed effectively. Therefore, while this client will need to be monitored to ensure that their medication continues to be effective, they are not the highest priority at this time.
Choice C rationale: Client 3 is 1 day postoperative and reports pain as 8 on a scale of 0 to 10, even after Morphine 5 mg subcutaneous was administered as prescribed. This indicates that the client’s pain is not well controlled and could be a sign of complications. Therefore, immediate assessment is required. This client should be the nurse’s highest priority.
Choice D rationale: Client 4 is admitted with a new diagnosis of heart failure. Heart failure is a serious condition that can have life- threatening complications. However, the fact that this is a new diagnosis suggests that the client’s condition is not yet severe enough to require immediate intervention. Therefore, while this client will need to be assessed and their care plan will need to be adjusted to manage their new diagnosis, they are not the highest priority at this time.
Choice E rationale: Client 5 has a stage 2 pressure injury on the left heel. Pressure injuries can lead to serious complications, including infection and tissue necrosis. However, a stage 2 pressure injury is a relatively minor injury that is unlikely to present an immediate threat to the client’s health. Therefore, while this client will need to be assessed and their care plan will need to be adjusted to manage their pressure injury, they are not the highest priority at this time.
Choice F rationale: Client 6 is admitted with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Diabetes is a chronic condition that requires ongoing management. However, the fact that this is a new diagnosis suggests that the client’s condition is not yet severe enough to require immediate intervention. Therefore, while this client will need to be assessed and their care plan will need to be adjusted to manage their new diagnosis, they are not the highest priority at this time.
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