A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The client is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion at 1,200 units/hr and warfarin 5 mg PO daily. The morning laboratory values for the client are aPTT 98 seconds (30 to 40 seconds) and INR 1.8 (0.8 to 1.1). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Withhold the next dose of warfarin
Withhold the heparin infusion
Prepare to administer vitamin K
Prepare to administer alteplase
The Correct Answer is B
A. Withholding the next dose of warfarin is incorrect. Warfarin takes several days to reach therapeutic levels, and the INR of 1.8 is below the target range (typically 2.0–3.0 for PE treatment). Stopping warfarin is unnecessary.
B. Withholding the heparin infusion is correct. The aPTT is significantly elevated at 98 seconds (therapeutic range: 60–80 seconds for PE treatment), increasing the risk of bleeding. The nurse should pause the heparin infusion and notify the provider for dose adjustment.
C. Preparing to administer vitamin K is incorrect. Vitamin K reverses warfarin effects, but the INR of 1.8 is not dangerously high and does not require reversal.
D. Preparing to administer alteplase is incorrect. Alteplase (a thrombolytic) is used for massive PE with hemodynamic instability, not for a patient already receiving anticoagulation therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A report of chest pain is an adverse effect of epinephrine, which can increase myocardial oxygen demand and cause angina or myocardial ischemia.
B. Hypotension is not a common effect after administering epinephrine; it typically causes hypertension due to vasoconstriction.
C. Ecchymosis is not a known adverse effect of epinephrine and may be related to other factors.
D. Tinnitus is not a recognized adverse effect of epinephrine and does not commonly occur after administration.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Decreased cholesterol is not a primary effect of chlorpromazine; the medication is primarily used for psychiatric conditions, not lipid management.
B. While chlorpromazine may have sedative effects that could impact blood pressure, decreased blood pressure is not a direct indicator of its effectiveness in treating psychiatric symptoms.
C. Decreased esophageal reflux is not a relevant effect of chlorpromazine, as it is primarily used for managing psychotic symptoms.
D. Decreased hallucinations is a direct indication of the medication's effectiveness in treating conditions such as schizophrenia or other psychotic disorders, as chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic medication.
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