A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed a DASH diet.
Which of the following is the best protein source for the nurse to instruct the client to eat?
Pork.
Turkey.
Beef.
Lamb.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Pork, particularly cuts like bacon or sausage, often contains high levels of saturated fat and sodium, which are detrimental to cardiovascular health and contradict the principles of the DASH diet. The DASH diet emphasizes lean protein sources to reduce fat intake and promote heart health.
Choice B rationale
Turkey, especially lean cuts like turkey breast without skin, is an excellent protein source for a DASH diet. It is low in saturated fat and cholesterol, providing high-quality protein necessary for tissue repair and maintenance without contributing to elevated blood pressure or dyslipidemia.
Choice C rationale
Beef, particularly fattier cuts, can be high in saturated fat and cholesterol, which should be limited in a DASH diet designed to lower blood pressure and improve cardiovascular health. While lean beef can be consumed in moderation, other protein sources are often preferred for their lower fat content.
Choice D rationale
Lamb, especially some cuts, can be high in saturated fat and cholesterol, similar to fattier cuts of beef. While it offers protein, its higher saturated fat content makes it a less optimal choice compared to leaner options for individuals adhering to a DASH diet focused on reducing cardiovascular risk factors.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Kyphosis, an exaggerated outward curvature of the thoracic spine, is a common spinal deformity in older adults with osteoporosis. This occurs due to vertebral compression fractures, where the weakened bone structure collapses anteriorly, leading to a "hunchback" appearance and loss of height, affecting posture and balance.
Choice B rationale
Ankylosis refers to the stiffening and immobility of a joint due to fusion of bones. While joint issues can occur in older adults, ankylosis is not a direct spinal deformity associated with osteoporosis; rather, it is more commonly linked to inflammatory conditions like ankylosing spondylitis or severe osteoarthritis.
Choice C rationale
Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine, often appearing as an S or C shape. While it can occur in older adults, it is not primarily a direct consequence or expected spinal deformity of osteoporosis. Adult degenerative scoliosis is often due to disc degeneration and facet joint arthritis, not solely bone demineralization.
Choice D rationale
Lordosis is an excessive inward curvature of the lumbar spine. While some degree of lumbar lordosis is normal, hyperlordosis can occur, but it is not the characteristic spinal deformity expected in osteoporosis. Osteoporosis typically leads to kyphosis due to anterior wedging of vertebral bodies, not increased lumbar curvature.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Atenolol is a beta-blocker primarily used to treat hypertension, angina, and certain arrhythmias. It acts by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors, reducing heart rate and blood pressure. It is not indicated for the acute management of status epilepticus, which requires rapid cessation of seizure activity.
Choice B rationale
Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that enhances the effect of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA in the brain. This leads to generalized central nervous system depression, effectively terminating ongoing seizure activity. Its rapid onset of action makes it a first-line medication for status epilepticus.
Choice C rationale
Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant commonly used for long-term seizure control. While it can be used to prevent recurrence of seizures after initial control of status epilepticus, its onset of action is slower compared to benzodiazepines, making it less suitable for immediate termination of ongoing status epilepticus.
Choice D rationale
Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure. It works by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and reduced blood pressure. It has no direct antiepileptic properties and is not indicated for the management of status epilepticus.
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