A nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension and asks the nurse about a prescription for propranolol. The nurse should inform the client that this medication is contraindicated in clients who have a history of which of the following conditions?
Migraines
Glaucoma
Asthma
Depression
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Migraines are not a contraindication for propranolol. In fact, propranolol is used as a prophylactic treatment for migraines, as it reduces the frequency and severity of migraine attacks.
Choice B reason: Glaucoma is not a contraindication for propranolol. Propranolol does not affect the intraocular pressure or the drainage of aqueous humor in the eye.
Choice C reason: Asthma is a contraindication for propranolol. Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker, which means it blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors in the body. Beta-2 receptors are found in the bronchial smooth muscle, and when they are blocked, they cause bronchoconstriction and increased airway resistance. This can worsen the symptoms of asthma and cause a life-threatening asthma attack.
Choice D reason: Depression is not a contraindication for propranolol. Propranolol does not cause depression, although it may cause some side effects such as fatigue, insomnia, and sexual dysfunction. However, these side effects are usually mild and reversible.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Eating a green salad every night with dinner is not the statement that indicates a need for further teaching. This is a consistent and balanced dietary choice for the client, as long as the amount of vitamin K in the salad is not excessive or variable. Vitamin K is a nutrient that helps the blood to clot and can interfere with the action of warfarin, which is an anticoagulant that inhibits the formation of blood clots. The client should avoid sudden changes in their intake of vitamin K and inform the provider of any dietary modifications.
Choice B reason: Taking this medication at the same time each day is not the statement that indicates a need for further teaching. This is a correct and important instruction for the client, as it helps to maintain a steady and effective level of warfarin in the blood. Warfarin has a narrow therapeutic range and requires frequent monitoring and dose adjustment. The client should take the medication as prescribed and avoid missing or skipping doses.
Choice C reason: Starting to take ginger root to treat joint stiffness is the statement that indicates a need for further teaching. This is a risky and potentially harmful herbal supplement for the client, as it can interact with warfarin and increase its anticoagulant effect. Ginger root has antiplatelet and fibrinolytic properties, which can inhibit the formation of blood clots and enhance the breakdown of fibrin, a protein that stabilizes blood clots. Taking ginger root with warfarin can increase the risk of bleeding and bruising and alter the international normalized ratio (INR), which is a measure of the blood's clotting ability. The client should avoid taking ginger root and other herbal supplements without consulting the provider.
Choice D reason: Having the INR checked three weeks ago is not the statement that indicates a need for further teaching. This is a reasonable and appropriate frequency for the client, depending on their stability and response to warfarin therapy. The INR is a blood test that measures the time it takes for the blood to clot and indicates the effectiveness of warfarin. The target INR range for most clients is 2 to 3, but it may vary depending on the indication and the risk of bleeding. The client should have their INR checked regularly and follow the provider's orders and the protocol for dose adjustment.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Naloxone is not the correct medication. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioid overdose, such as respiratory depression, sedation, and hypotension. Naloxone has no effect on magnesium sulfate, which is a mineral and electrolyte that is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia or eclampsia.
Choice B reason: Protamine is not the correct medication. Protamine is a heparin antagonist that reverses the effects of heparin overdose, such as bleeding, bruising, and thrombocytopenia. Protamine has no effect on magnesium sulfate, which is not an anticoagulant.
Choice C reason: Calcium gluconate is the correct medication. Calcium gluconate is a calcium salt that antagonizes the effects of magnesium sulfate overdose, such as hypotension, bradycardia, respiratory depression, and muscle weakness. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity, which can occur when the serum magnesium level is above 7.5 mEq/L. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, deep tendon reflexes, and urine output, and report any signs of toxicity to the provider.
Choice D reason: Flumazenil is not the correct medication. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist that reverses the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, such as drowsiness, confusion, and coma. Flumazenil has no effect on magnesium sulfate, which is not a sedative.
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