A nurse is caring for a client who has nephrotic syndrome and is receiving high-dose corticosteroid therapy. For which of the following electrolyte imbalances should the nurse monitor?
Hypokalemia.
Hypomagnesemia.
Hypermagnesemia.
Hyperkalemia.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is: A
Choice A Reason: Hypokalemia refers to a lower-than-normal level of potassium in the bloodstream. Normal potassium levels are typically between 3.5 and 5.0 mEq/L. In the context of nephrotic syndrome and high-dose corticosteroid therapy, hypokalemia can occur due to increased urinary potassium losses caused by corticosteroid-induced alterations in kidney function. Corticosteroids can promote the excretion of potassium, leading to a deficiency.
Choice B Reason: Hypomagnesemia is a condition where there is a magnesium deficiency in the blood, with normal levels usually ranging between 1.7 and 2.2 mg/dL. While it can occur in nephrotic syndrome due to urinary losses of proteins that bind magnesium, it is not typically associated with corticosteroid therapy. Therefore, it is less likely to be monitored in this specific scenario.
Choice C Reason: Hypermagnesemia indicates an abnormally high level of magnesium in the blood. This condition is relatively rare and is not commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome or corticosteroid therapy. It is more often related to renal failure or excessive intake of magnesium-containing medications or supplements.
Choice D Reason: Hyperkalemia is characterized by an elevated level of potassium in the blood, with normal levels being 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. While hyperkalemia can occur in nephrotic syndrome due to the loss of albumin in the urine, which can affect calcium and potassium binding, corticosteroid therapy typically causes a decrease in potassium levels, making hypokalemia a more relevant concern in this context.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This statement is incorrect. Impulsive behavior is more commonly associated with right hemispheric CVAs.
Choice B rationale:
This statement is incorrect. A left hemispheric CVA typically results in right-side motor function impairment.
Choice C rationale:
This statement is incorrect. Loss of depth perception is more commonly associated with right hemispheric CVAs.
Choice D rationale:
This statement is correct. Left hemispheric CVAs often result in language and speech impairments, so establishing effective communication would be a key goal in rehabilitation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hemorrhagic stroke is characterized by sudden, severe headache, vomiting, and a significant increase in blood pressure, all of which are present in the client. This type of stroke occurs when a weakened blood vessel ruptures and bleeds into the surrounding brain.
Choice B rationale:
Thrombotic stroke is caused by a clot that develops in a blood vessel within the brain. It typically presents with less severe symptoms and a gradual onset, not a sudden one.
Choice C rationale:
Embolic stroke is caused by a clot that travels to the brain from another part of the body. Like thrombotic stroke, it typically has a more gradual onset.
Choice D rationale:
Transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain. It usually lasts less than an hour and does not cause permanent damage.
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