A nurse is caring for a client who has prescriptions for spironolactone and lisinopril. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
Hypoglycemia
Hyperkalemia
Hyperglycemia
Hypokalemia
The Correct Answer is B
A. Hypoglycemia. Neither spironolactone nor lisinopril directly affects blood glucose levels. Hypoglycemia is more commonly associated with insulin, sulfonylureas (e.g., glipizide), and excessive alcohol consumption, rather than potassium-sparing diuretics or ACE inhibitors.
B. Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that promotes sodium excretion while retaining potassium, increasing the risk of hyperkalemia. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, also raises potassium levels by reducing aldosterone secretion, which normally promotes potassium excretion. The combination of these two medications significantly increases the risk of dangerously high potassium levels, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, and life-threatening complications. Clients should have serum potassium levels monitored regularly and be advised to avoid potassium-rich foods and supplements.
C. Hyperglycemia. Neither medication is known to cause hyperglycemia. Thiazide and loop diuretics are more likely to elevate blood glucose levels due to their effects on insulin sensitivity, but spironolactone and lisinopril do not share this effect.
D. Hypokalemia. Spironolactone prevents potassium loss, and lisinopril reduces potassium excretion, making hypokalemia unlikely. Hypokalemia is more commonly seen with loop diuretics (e.g., furosemide) and thiazide diuretics (e.g., hydrochlorothiazide), which promote potassium loss.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Deferoxamine. Deferoxamine is a chelating agent used to treat iron overload or toxicity. It has no role in managing an acute allergic reaction or respiratory distress caused by nafcillin, a penicillin-type antibiotic.
B. Vitamin K. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin-induced anticoagulation and is not indicated for treating an allergic reaction. Anaphylaxis is not related to coagulation disturbances, making this an inappropriate intervention.
C. Epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, which can present with difficulty breathing, bronchospasm, and hypotension. It works by stimulating alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors, leading to bronchodilation, increased cardiac output, and vasoconstriction to counteract severe allergic reactions. Immediate administration is necessary to prevent further airway compromise and circulatory collapse.
D. Prednisone. Prednisone is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and prevent delayed allergic reactions. While it may be prescribed as part of long-term management, it does not provide the rapid bronchodilation and vasoconstriction needed for emergency treatment of anaphylaxis.
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
A. Breastfeeding. Ceftriaxone is generally considered safe during breastfeeding because only a small amount is excreted in breast milk. While monitoring for gastrointestinal disturbances or thrush in the infant is advised, breastfeeding is not a contraindication for ceftriaxone use.
B. Client allergy. The client has a penicillin allergy, which raises concerns about cross-reactivity with cephalosporins, including ceftriaxone. Although the cross-reactivity rate is low, clients with a history of severe allergic reactions (e.g., anaphylaxis, angioedema, or urticaria) to penicillin should avoid cephalosporins. The nurse should clarify the nature of the penicillin allergy before administering ceftriaxone.
C. Gentamycin prescription. Ceftriaxone and gentamicin are both nephrotoxic, and using them together increases the risk of kidney damage. The client should be monitored for renal function impairment, and alternative antibiotic therapy may be considered if necessary. The nurse should discuss this potential drug interaction with the provider before administration.
D. Hematocrit. The client’s hematocrit (32%) is low but does not require withholding ceftriaxone. A slightly decreased hematocrit is expected postpartum, especially in cases of infection or recent delivery. Ceftriaxone is not known to cause significant hematologic suppression that would make this a contraindication.
E. Hemoglobin. The client’s hemoglobin (9 g/dL) is lower than normal, likely due to postpartum blood loss or infection-related inflammation. However, ceftriaxone does not directly affect hemoglobin levels, so this is not a reason to withhold the medication.
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