A nurse is caring for a client who has shortness of breath and a chronic cough. The client has smoked one pack of cigarettes per day for the last 20 years. Which finding on the client's chest x-ray would be consistent with a diagnosis of advanced COPD?
Pneumothorax
Hyperinflation
Masses
Atelectasis
The Correct Answer is B
A. A pneumothorax, or collapsed lung, occurs when air enters the pleural space, leading to lung collapse. While a pneumothorax can be a serious issue, it is not a typical finding associated with advanced COPD.
B. Hyperinflation is a hallmark finding of advanced COPD. It occurs when air becomes trapped in the lungs due to obstructed airways and damaged alveoli, leading to increased lung volumes and overexpansion of the lungs. On a chest X-ray, hyperinflation appears as an increased retrosternal air space, flattened diaphragm, and possibly increased lung volumes.
C. The presence of masses on a chest X-ray might suggest malignancies or other lung pathologies, but it is not a typical finding in COPD. While lung cancer can co-occur with COPD, masses themselves are not a direct indicator of COPD but rather a potential separate issue that would need further evaluation.
D. Atelectasis refers to the collapse of lung tissue due to loss of air in the alveoli, which can occur from various causes including obstruction or compression of the lung. While atelectasis can be seen in various pulmonary conditions, it is not specific to advanced COPD.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Peptic ulcers are sores that develop on the lining of the stomach, small intestine, or esophagus due to the erosion caused by stomach acid. A Mallory-Weiss tear is not related to peptic ulcers. Instead, it results from a different type of injury related to forceful vomiting or retching.
B. Chewable aspirin is not a treatment for Mallory-Weiss tears. In fact, aspirin can exacerbate bleeding and is typically avoided in situations where gastrointestinal bleeding is present. Mallory-Weiss tears are generally managed by supportive measures and sometimes endoscopic interventions, not with aspirin.
C. A Mallory-Weiss tear specifically affects the mucosal lining at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach, not the duodenum. The duodenum is part of the small intestine, and tears or bleeding here are not characteristic of Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
D. A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear or laceration in the mucosal lining at the gastroesophageal junction (where the esophagus meets the stomach). It is typically caused by severe vomiting or retching, which can lead to the tear and subsequent upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Cool, clammy skin can be a sign of a myocardial infarction. It occurs due to the body's stress response during an MI, leading to decreased perfusion and sweating. This symptom is consistent with the autonomic response to a heart attack.
B. Chest pain radiating into the back, jaw, or arms is a classic symptom of myocardial infarction. This radiation of pain is due to the way pain signals are transmitted and referred from the heart to other parts of the body. It is a common and significant symptom of MI.
C. Nausea and vomiting can occur during a myocardial infarction, particularly in older adults. These symptoms are related to the autonomic nervous system's response to the stress of an MI and can sometimes be the presenting symptoms, especially in women and older adults.
D. Peripheral edema is generally not a direct symptom of myocardial infarction. It is more commonly associated with chronic heart failure or other conditions leading to fluid overload. While MI can lead to heart failure over time, peripheral edema itself is not a typical acute symptom of an MI.
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