The patient is admitted with upper GI bleeding following an episode of forceful vomiting due to excessive alcohol intake. The nurse suspects a Mallory-Weiss tear. Which of the following is true of a Mallory-Weiss tear?
The bleeding occurs from peptic ulcers in the stomach.
This type of bleeding is treated by giving chewable aspirin.
The bleeding occurs from tears in the lining of the duodenum.
The bleeding occurs from a tear in the mucosal lining where the esophagus meets the stomach.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Peptic ulcers are sores that develop on the lining of the stomach, small intestine, or esophagus due to the erosion caused by stomach acid. A Mallory-Weiss tear is not related to peptic ulcers. Instead, it results from a different type of injury related to forceful vomiting or retching.
B. Chewable aspirin is not a treatment for Mallory-Weiss tears. In fact, aspirin can exacerbate bleeding and is typically avoided in situations where gastrointestinal bleeding is present. Mallory-Weiss tears are generally managed by supportive measures and sometimes endoscopic interventions, not with aspirin.
C. A Mallory-Weiss tear specifically affects the mucosal lining at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach, not the duodenum. The duodenum is part of the small intestine, and tears or bleeding here are not characteristic of Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
D. A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear or laceration in the mucosal lining at the gastroesophageal junction (where the esophagus meets the stomach). It is typically caused by severe vomiting or retching, which can lead to the tear and subsequent upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Fluid volume deficit, or dehydration, occurs when the body loses more fluid than it takes in. In this case, the patient has very low urine output, indicating that the kidneys are not excreting enough fluid. Despite the low urine output, the presence of pitting edema suggests that the patient is actually retaining fluid rather than losing it.
B. Bradycardia is defined as a heart rate slower than 60 beats per minute. While electrolyte imbalances and fluid imbalances can affect heart rate, bradycardia is not the primary concern associated with the combination of pitting edema and low urine output in this situation.
C. Hypertension (high blood pressure) is a common complication in acute glomerulonephritis. The condition often leads to fluid retention due to reduced kidney function and increased sodium and fluid retention. The presence of pitting edema and very low urine output suggests that the kidneys are not effectively removing excess fluid, which can lead to increased blood pressure.
D. Hyperglycemia refers to elevated blood glucose levels. Acute glomerulonephritis is not directly associated with hyperglycemia. While patients with diabetes can develop renal issues, hyperglycemia itself is not a typical direct complication of acute glomerulonephritis.
Correct Answer is ["50"]
Explanation
Flow rate in gtt/min = (Volume in mL * Drop factor) / Time in minutes.
The prescribed volume is 150 mL/hr. Since there are 60 minutes in an hour, the time for one hour would be 60 minutes. The drop factor is 20 gtt/mL.
(150 mL/hr * 20 gtt/mL) / 60 min/hr = 3000 gtt/hr / 60 min/hr = 50 gtt/min.
Therefore, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 50 gtt/min.
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