A nurse is caring for an 83-year-old client who asks for a warm blanket despite the room temperature being 80°F. The nurse understands that which of the following physiological changes experienced by older adults makes it more difficult for them maintain their body temperature?
Decline in estrogen production
Increased blood pressure
Decreased muscle strength and tone
Decreased subcutaneous fat
The Correct Answer is D
A. Estrogen's role in temperature regulation is not as significant as other factors in the context of aging and body temperature maintenance.
B. Increased blood pressure itself does not directly influence the ability to maintain body temperature. While hypertension can have various effects on cardiovascular health, it is not a primary factor in the regulation of body temperature in older adults.
C. Decreased muscle strength and tone are significant factors affecting temperature regulation. Muscle activity generates heat, and a decline in muscle mass and strength can impair the body’s ability to generate and maintain adequate warmth.
D. Decreased subcutaneous fat is a key factor in temperature regulation. Subcutaneous fat acts as an insulator, helping to retain body heat. As people age, they often experience a decrease in subcutaneous fat, which reduces their ability to insulate and maintain body heat effectively.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Guillain-Barre Syndrome is not a contagious disease. It is an autoimmune disorder that occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves. GBS is not spread through respiratory droplets or any other form of infection transmission.
B. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes demyelination in the peripheral nervous system, not the central nervous system. The central nervous system includes the brain and spinal cord, whereas the peripheral nervous system comprises the nerves outside the brain and spinal cord.
C. Guillain-Barre Syndrome is not a genetic disorder. It is considered an autoimmune condition that can be triggered by an infection or other environmental factors. While there may be genetic predispositions that affect susceptibility to autoimmune conditions, GBS itself is not classified as a genetic disorder.
D. Guillain-Barre Syndrome primarily affects the peripheral nervous system. It involves an immune- mediated attack on the peripheral nerves, leading to symptoms such as muscle weakness, tingling, and loss of reflexes.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat fluid overload by increasing urine output. In an Addisonian crisis, the primary issue is the severe lack of adrenal hormones rather than fluid overload. Administering furosemide is not indicated in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of the crisis or correct electrolyte imbalances that are common in Addisonian crisis.
B. This is a common intravenous fluid choice for managing Addisonian crisis. The 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) helps to restore blood volume and correct electrolyte imbalances, while the 5% dextrose provides glucose to support energy needs. This combination helps to address hypovolemia (low blood volume) and prevent hypoglycemia (low blood sugar), both of which can occur in an adrenal crisis.
C. Ketoconazole is an antifungal medication that can be used to treat Cushing’s syndrome, not Addisonian crisis. Insulin is used to manage blood glucose levels and would not be the primary treatment for Addisonian crisis. This option does not directly address the adrenal insufficiency or the immediate needs of an Addisonian crisis.
D. Addisonian crisis often presents with hyponatremia (low sodium) and hyperkalemia (high potassium) due to inadequate aldosterone production. Administering potassium chloride could exacerbate hyperkalemia, which is a concern in Addisonian crisis. Therefore, potassium chloride infusion is not appropriate and could worsen the electrolyte imbalance.
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