A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hr postoperative following abdominal surgery. The client received an opioid analgesic 1 hr ago and now reports a pain level of 2 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Maintain the client on bed rest.
Apply a warm, moist compress to the incision area.
Administer an additional dose of pain medication.
Reposition the client.
The Correct Answer is D
Answer is: d. Reposition the client.
Explanation: Repositioning the client can help alleviate pain by redistributing pressure and promoting comfort. Since the client's pain level is relatively low (2 on a scale of 0 to 10), this non-pharmacological intervention is an appropriate initial action.
Choice a. is wrong because maintaining the client on bed rest is not an appropriate action for a pain level of 2. Instead, the nurse should encourage the client to mobilize and perform appropriate exercises to prevent complications related to immobility.
Choice b. is wrong because applying a warm, moist compress to the incision area might not be the best action for a client who is 24 hours postoperative, as it could increase the risk of infection and cause discomfort. Cold compresses are often used in the initial postoperative period to reduce swelling and promote comfort.
Choice c. is wrong because administering an additional dose of pain medication is not necessary at this point, as the client's pain level is relatively low. The nurse should consider non-pharmacological interventions first and reassess the client's pain level to determine the need for further pain relief.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The client takes ibuprofen for headaches. NSAIDs such as ibuprofen can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, which can result in a false positive result on a fecal occult blood test.
Option A is incorrect because breast cancer is not associated with false-positive fecal occult blood results.
Option C is incorrect because citrus juice does not affect the fecal occult blood test.
Option D is incorrect because a hemorrhoidectomy is not associated with false-positive fecal occult blood results.
Reasons why the other options are not answered:
Option A: Breast cancer is not associated with false-positive fecal occult blood results.
Option C: Citrus juice does not affect the fecal occult blood test.
Option D: A hemorrhoidectomy is not associated with false-positive fecal occult blood results.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Advise the client about increased dry mouth. Transdermal clonidine can cause xerostomia, or dry mouth, due to a decrease in salivary secretion. The nurse should advise the client to maintain good oral hygiene and to increase fluid intake to prevent oral and dental problems.
An explanation for incorrect choices:
A. Weight loss is not a common adverse effect or risk associated with transdermal clonidine.
C. Diarrhea can occur with transdermal clonidine, but it is not a common adverse effect or risk.
D. Hypopigmentation is rare with transdermal clonidine; it is more common with corticosteroids.
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