A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hr postoperative. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to reduce the risk of atelectasis?
Administer morphine intermittent IV bolus every 2 hr to the client.
Turn the client from side to side every 4 hr.
Provide the client with nasotracheal suctioning for 15 to 20 seconds at a time.
Instruct the client to hold the inhaled breath for 2 to 5 seconds with incentive spirometer use.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Administering morphine intermittent IV bolus every 2 hours is not a suitable intervention for reducing the risk of atelectasis. While pain management is important postoperatively, morphine can depress respiratory function and increase the risk of atelectasis.
Choice B rationale:
Turning the client from side to side every 4 hours is important for preventing pressure ulcers and promoting comfort, but it is not a specific intervention for reducing the risk of atelectasis.
Choice C rationale:
Providing nasotracheal suctioning for 15 to 20 seconds at a time is not a preventive measure for atelectasis. Suctioning may be necessary for airway clearance in certain situations, but it does not address the root cause of atelectasis.
Choice D rationale:
This is the correct choice. Instructing the client to hold the inhaled breath for 2 to 5 seconds with incentive spirometer use is an effective intervention to reduce the risk of atelectasis. Incentive spirometry helps to expand the lungs and improve ventilation, preventing atelectasis after surgery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
C. Fever:
Fever is a classic sign of fat overload syndrome. Fat overload syndrome occurs when the body is unable to metabolize the fat in the IV fat emulsion properly, leading to fat accumulation in tissues and organs. This can result in fever, which is one of the primary manifestations. Other signs can include respiratory distress, liver dysfunction, and changes in laboratory values, such as elevated triglycerides.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Verify that the client has adequate IV access.
Choice A rationale:
Administering vasopressin to the client might be necessary to manage the hemorrhage, but before any medication administration, it is crucial to ensure the client has adequate IV access. Vasopressin is a vasoconstrictor and can help control bleeding from esophageal varices, but its effectiveness relies on IV access to deliver the medication promptly.
Choice B rationale:
Requesting blood from the blood bank is essential for a client experiencing significant bleeding. However, the priority action is to verify IV access to administer any necessary blood products.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct choice. Before initiating any interventions, ensuring the client has appropriate IV access is a priority. Adequate IV access is necessary to administer fluids, medications, or blood products promptly and effectively stabilize the client's blood pressure.
Choice D rationale:
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority action in this situation. While monitoring urine output is important, it should be secondary to addressing the client's hypotension and hemorrhage.
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