A nurse is teaching an adult client who has been recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
"When taking leflunomide, expect decreased swelling within 1 week.".
"If acute inflammation is present, apply hot packs directly to the joint for pain relief.".
"Take calcium and vitamin D supplements along with your steroid medication.".
"Make sure your varicella vaccine is up to date.".
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Leflunomide is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) used for rheumatoid arthritis, but it does not typically result in decreased swelling within one week. It usually takes several weeks or even months for its full effect to be observed.
Choice B rationale:
Applying hot packs directly to the joint for pain relief is not recommended for rheumatoid arthritis, as heat can exacerbate inflammation. Cold packs or other anti-inflammatory measures are more appropriate.
Choice C rationale:
Steroid medications, such as prednisone, can lead to bone density loss and an increased risk of osteoporosis. Taking calcium and vitamin D supplements helps to mitigate this risk.
Choice D rationale:
The Varicella vaccine is not directly related to rheumatoid arthritis. It is important for immune support, but it is not specifically required for rheumatoid arthritis treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Testicular cancer may present as a painless lump or swelling in the testicle. It's important for the client to monitor for any new or unusual lumps, as they could be indicative of cancer.
Choice B rationale:
A decreased size of the testicle is not a typical manifestation of testicular cancer. It is more commonly associated with conditions like testicular atrophy due to other causes.
Choice C rationale:
Asymmetry in the position of the testicles, with one testicle descending lower than the other, is a normal variation and not a sign of testicular cancer.
Choice D rationale:
Dilated veins above the testicle can be a sign of a varicocele, which is a separate condition from testicular cancer. It is caused by abnormal enlargement of veins in the scrotum and is generally not associated with cancer.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A defined area of cool, boggy skin is not indicative of a stage 2 pressure injury. Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial-thickness skin loss, usually appearing as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough or bruising.
Choice B rationale:
A shallow crater involving the epidermis is characteristic of a stage 2 pressure injury. It presents as a partial-thickness skin loss with the loss of the epidermis, and the wound may be superficial and appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow ulcer.
Choice C rationale:
The reddened area that does not blanch is more indicative of an early-stage pressure injury (Stage 1). In Stage 1, the skin remains intact, but there is non-blanch-able erythema indicating damage to the skin and underlying tissue.
Choice D rationale:
Undermining or tunneling of the skin is not specific to stage 2 pressure injuries. These features may be observed in more advanced stages of pressure injuries, such as stages 3 and 4, where there is full-thickness skin loss with damage to the subcutaneous tissue and underlying structures.
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