A nurse is caring for a client who is 9 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth with a quantitative blood loss of 1200 mL. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing a fluid volume deficit?
900 mL of urine output since the birth.
Temperature 37.6° C (99.6° F).
Reports of excessive sweating.
Blood pressure 80/55 mm Hg.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
900 mL of urine output since birth (9 hours postpartum) translates to an average of 100 mL/hour. A normal urine output is typically 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hour, which is usually greater than 30 mL/hour for adults. This indicates adequate renal perfusion and fluid balance rather than deficit.
Choice B rationale
A temperature of 37.6° C (99.6° F) is considered a low-grade fever. While it could be an early sign of infection, it is not a direct indicator of fluid volume deficit. Normal postpartum temperature may slightly increase due to dehydration or exertion during labor but usually remains below 38°C (100.4°F).
Choice C rationale
Reports of excessive sweating could be a compensatory mechanism for fever or a response to hormonal changes postpartum, but it is not a primary indicator of fluid volume deficit. In fact, excessive sweating can contribute to fluid loss, but it is not the most definitive sign.
Choice D rationale
A blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg, particularly with a quantitative blood loss of 1200 mL, is a significant indicator of fluid volume deficit, specifically hypovolemic shock. Normal postpartum blood pressure is usually similar to pre-pregnancy levels (e.g., 90/60 to 120/80 mmHg). The low blood pressure reflects inadequate circulatory volume compromising tissue perfusion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Ensuring suction is available is critical because clients with severe preeclampsia or eclampsia are at risk for seizures that can cause airway obstruction from secretions or vomiting. Suction readiness supports immediate airway management during a seizure, preventing aspiration and maintaining oxygenation, essential in protecting maternal and fetal health.
Choice B rationale: Administering 10 L of oxygen via nasal cannula is not appropriate because nasal cannulas typically deliver oxygen up to 6 L/min; higher flows require a different delivery system like a non-rebreather mask. Also, routine high-flow oxygen is not indicated unless hypoxia is present. The client’s oxygen saturation is normal (99%), so supplemental oxygen at this rate is unnecessary and could cause discomfort or drying of mucous membranes.
Choice C rationale: Raising side rails is a safety measure to prevent injury during seizures or sudden movements caused by central nervous system irritability in preeclampsia. Elevated side rails help protect the client from falls or trauma if a seizure occurs, an essential precaution in clients with neurological symptoms such as hyperreflexia and clonus.
Choice D rationale: Placing a padded tongue blade at the bedside prepares for seizure management by preventing tongue biting and airway obstruction. The padded blade reduces the risk of oral trauma during convulsions and maintains airway patency. However, it should be used carefully to avoid airway injury or obstruction and only if a seizure occurs.
Choice E rationale: Dimming lights reduces environmental stimuli that may exacerbate neurological irritability or trigger seizures in preeclampsia/eclampsia. Bright or flashing lights can increase CNS excitation, worsening headache, visual disturbances, or seizure risk. Creating a calm, low-stimulation environment helps stabilize the client’s neurological status.
Choice F rationale: Placing the client in the supine position is contraindicated because it compresses the inferior vena cava, reducing venous return and cardiac output, potentially worsening placental perfusion. The left lateral position is preferred in hypertensive pregnancy to optimize uteroplacental blood flow and maternal hemodynamics, improving fetal oxygenation and maternal comfort.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Palpating contractions as mild indicates that the current oxytocin dose is likely insufficient to achieve an expected labor pattern. Oxytocin aims to induce moderate-to-strong uterine contractions, typically occurring every 2-3 minutes, lasting 40-90 seconds. Mild contractions suggest suboptimal uterine activity, justifying an increase in the infusion rate to stimulate more effective contractions.
Choice B rationale
Spontaneous rupture of membranes is a natural progression of labor and does not directly indicate the need to titrate oxytocin based on uterine contraction effectiveness. While rupture of membranes can accelerate labor, the oxytocin titration decisions are primarily based on the intensity and frequency of uterine contractions, not the status of the amniotic sac.
Choice C rationale
A decrease in the client's pain level is not an indicator for titrating oxytocin for labor induction. Pain is subjective and influenced by various factors, including analgesia. Oxytocin titration is guided by objective measures of uterine activity and cervical change, aiming for an adequate labor pattern rather than pain management.
Choice D rationale
Stabilization of the client's blood pressure, while desirable, is not a direct parameter for titrating oxytocin to achieve an expected labor pattern. Oxytocin's primary effect is on uterine contractility, and titration decisions are based on the frequency, duration, and intensity of contractions, and cervical dilation, not systemic blood pressure changes.
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