A nurse is caring for a female client, age 30, at 37 weeks of gestation, admitted to the labor and delivery unit from the provider’s office for observation and laboratory testing.
Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Moderate fetal heart rate variability
Headache
Heart rate
Edema
Blood pressure
Fetal heart rate
Irregular contractions
Negative ankle clonus
Patellar deep tendon reflexes
Correct Answer : B,C,D,E
Choice A rationale: Moderate fetal heart rate variability indicates a healthy autonomic nervous system response in the fetus, reflecting adequate oxygenation and neurologic function. Variability within moderate range (6-25 beats/min) suggests the fetus is not currently experiencing hypoxia or acidosis. This finding is reassuring and does not require urgent reporting as it reflects normal fetal well-being according to obstetrical monitoring standards.
Choice B rationale: Persistent headache unrelieved by acetaminophen in a pregnant client with elevated blood pressure is a significant symptom suggestive of worsening preeclampsia or impending eclampsia. Headache can result from cerebral vasospasm or edema and requires prompt evaluation as it indicates central nervous system involvement. Elevated blood pressure over 140/90 mm Hg plus headache raises concern for severe preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale: The heart rate of 98 beats/min is within normal adult range (60-100 bpm) and is not clinically concerning in this context. Tachycardia or bradycardia might warrant attention, but a heart rate under 100 in a stable client with no signs of distress is typical and not a reportable abnormality in isolation.
Choice D rationale: Edema, especially 2+ pitting in the lower extremities and hands, is common in pregnancy but circumorbital and hand edema preventing ring removal is concerning. It may indicate fluid retention due to endothelial dysfunction and capillary leakage seen in preeclampsia. Such edema suggests worsening vascular permeability and should be reported for timely management.
Choice E rationale: Blood pressure reading of 160/98 mm Hg is above the normal pregnancy threshold (less than 140/90 mm Hg) and qualifies as severe hypertension. Elevated blood pressure is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia and increases risk for maternal and fetal complications including stroke, placental abruption, and fetal growth restriction, requiring immediate provider notification.
Choice F rationale: The fetal heart rate of 130 beats/min falls within the normal baseline range (110-160 bpm) with moderate variability, indicating no current fetal distress. This normal finding does not require urgent reporting as it reflects appropriate fetal status.
Choice G rationale: Irregular contractions without pattern or intensity are common and often represent Braxton Hicks contractions, especially near term. These do not typically indicate active labor or distress and do not require urgent reporting unless they become regular, painful, or accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
Choice H rationale: Negative ankle clonus reflects normal neurological function and absence of central nervous system hyperreflexia. Presence of clonus could suggest severe preeclampsia with neurological involvement; its absence is reassuring and not a reportable concern.
Choice I rationale: Patellar deep tendon reflexes at 2+ are normal on a scale of 0 to 4+. Hyperreflexia (3+ or 4+) could indicate neurologic irritability from preeclampsia. Normal reflexes suggest no current severe neurological involvement, so this does not warrant immediate reporting.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering a rubella immunization during pregnancy is contraindicated because the rubella vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine. There is a theoretical risk of viral transmission to the fetus, which could lead to congenital rubella syndrome. Vaccination should occur postpartum to protect future pregnancies.
Choice B rationale
Breastfeeding is not contraindicated after receiving the rubella vaccine. Although rubella vaccine virus can be excreted in breast milk, it generally does not cause clinical illness in the infant and passive transfer of antibodies may provide some protection to the infant.
Choice C rationale
A rubella titer of 1: indicates a low level of rubella antibodies, meaning the client is susceptible to rubella infection. A titer of less than 1: or 1: is generally considered non-immune, requiring vaccination to prevent congenital rubella syndrome in future pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
Repeating a rubella titer in the third trimester is not a standard practice for assessing susceptibility. Once susceptibility is determined, the primary intervention is postpartum vaccination. The initial titer result accurately reflects immune status and further testing during pregnancy is unnecessary.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Bilirubin levels are typically monitored by a healthcare professional and not by parents at home every 6 hours. The frequency of bilirubin checks for a newborn receiving home phototherapy is usually determined by the healthcare provider based on the infant's bilirubin trajectory and clinical status, often daily or as prescribed.
Choice B rationale
Offering glucose water to newborns is not recommended. Glucose water does not provide adequate nutrition and can interfere with successful breastfeeding or formula feeding by reducing the infant's appetite for nutrient-rich milk. Adequate hydration and nutrition are crucial for bilirubin excretion in jaundiced infants.
Choice C rationale
For biliblanket phototherapy, eye coverings are generally not necessary. The biliblanket emits light from a fiber optic pad that is wrapped around the infant's body, and the light does not directly shine into the baby's eyes, unlike traditional overhead phototherapy lights that require eye protection.
Choice D rationale
Removing the baby from the biliblanket for feedings is appropriate and encouraged. Intermittent breaks for feeding and bonding are permissible as long as the total duration of phototherapy prescribed by the healthcare provider is met. Frequent feedings promote bilirubin excretion through stools.
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