A nurse is caring for a client who is immobile.
Which of the following interventions is appropriate to prevent contracture?
Align a trochanter wedge between the client’s legs.
Apply an orthotic to the client’s foot.
Place a towel roll under the client’s neck.
Position a pillow under the client’s knees.
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The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. Applying an orthotic to the client’s foot.
An orthotic is a device that supports or corrects the function of a body part.
In this case, an orthotic can help prevent foot drop, which is a common contracture deformity in immobile patients.
Foot drop occurs when the muscles that lift the foot become weak or paralyzed, causing the foot to hang down at the ankle. An orthotic can keep the foot in a neutral position and prevent shortening of the calf muscles and Achilles tendon.
Choice A is wrong because a trochanter wedge is used to prevent external rotation of the hip, not contracture. A trochanter wedge is a triangular-shaped pillow that is placed between the legs to keep them parallel and aligned.
Choice C is wrong because a towel roll under the neck is used to maintain proper cervical alignment, not contracture. A towel roll can prevent hyperextension of the neck and support the natural curve of the spine.
Choice D is wrong because a pillow under the knees can actually cause contracture of the knee joint by keeping it in a flexed position. A pillow under the knees can also reduce blood flow to the lower extremities and increase the risk of deep vein thrombosis.
Contracture is a permanent tightening of the muscles, tendons, skin, and surrounding tissues that causes the joints to shorten and stiffen.
Contracture can limit the range of motion and function of the affected body part. Contracture can be caused by inactivity, scarring, or diseases that affect the muscles or nerves. Prevention of contractures requires early diagnosis and initiation of physical medicine approaches such as passive range of motion exercises and splinting before contractures are present or while contractures are mild.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. INR.
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver.
These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR).
The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments.
The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly.
The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding. Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
Normal ranges:
- INR: 0.8-1.2
- Fibrinogen: 200-400 mg/dL
- aPTT: 25-35 seconds
- Platelet count: 150-450 x 10^9/L References:
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Urine specific gravity: The specific gravity of 1.035 indicates concentrated urine and might be indicative of dehydration. However, the nurse should address this finding by encouraging increased fluid intake before reporting it to the provider.
Choice B Reason:
Prealbumin: The prealbumin level is 25 mg/dL. Prealbumin is a marker of nutritional status and can indicate the adequacy of protein intake and overall nutritional status. A level of 25 mg/dL is relatively low, which may suggest malnutrition or insufficient protein intake. This finding should be reported to the provider so that appropriate interventions can be initiated to address the client's nutritional needs.
Choice C Reason:
Temperature: The temperature is not mentioned in the provided information. If the temperature is within the normal range, there is no need to report it to the provider.
Choice D Reason:
Blood pressure: The blood pressure is not mentioned in the provided information. If the blood pressure is within the normal range, there is no need to report it to the provider.
It's important for the nurse to critically assess the client's medical record and prioritize the findings that require immediate attention or intervention. In this case, the low prealbumin level indicates a potential nutritional issue that needs to be addressed promptly. The nurse should communicate this finding to the healthcare provider to ensure appropriate management and care for the client.
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