A nurse is caring for a client who is in premature labor and is receiving terbutaline. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects that should be reported to the provider?

Nervousness

Tremors

Dyspnea

Headaches

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Nervousness is a common and expected side effect of terbutaline, which is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist that stimulates the sympathetic nervous system and relaxes the uterine smooth muscle. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, but can provide reassurance and comfort to the client.

Choice B reason: Tremors are also a common and expected side effect of terbutaline, as it causes increased muscle activity and shakiness. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, but can monitor the client's vital signs and electrolyte levels, and advise the client to avoid caffeine and other stimulants.

Choice C reason: Dyspnea is an uncommon and serious side effect of terbutaline, as it can indicate pulmonary edema, which is a life-threatening condition where fluid accumulates in the lungs and impairs gas exchange. The nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately and prepare for interventions, such as oxygen therapy, diuretics, or discontinuation of terbutaline.

Choice D reason: Headaches are also a common and expected side effect of terbutaline, as it causes vasodilation and increased blood flow to the brain. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, but can administer analgesics as prescribed, and encourage the client to rest and hydrate.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Glipizide is not an appropriate medication for the client, because it is a sulfonylurea that can cross the placenta and cause fetal hypoglycemia, hyperinsulinemia, and macrosomia. Glipizide is contraindicated in pregnancy.

Choice B reason: Acarbose is not an appropriate medication for the client, because it is an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor that can cause gastrointestinal side effects, such as flatulence, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. Acarbose is not recommended in pregnancy.

Choice C reason: Glyburide is an appropriate medication for the client, because it is a sulfonylurea that has a low placental transfer and a minimal risk of fetal hypoglycemia. Glyburide is considered safe and effective in pregnancy.

Choice D reason: Repaglinide is not an appropriate medication for the client, because it is a meglitinide that can cross the placenta and cause fetal hypoglycemia and teratogenic effects. Repaglinide is contraindicated in pregnancy.

A. AFI B. Fetal heart rate C. Fetal movement D. Fetal tone E. Placental grade

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: AFI stands for amniotic fluid index, which is a measurement of the amount of amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus. AFI is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal urine output and the placental function. A normal AFI is between 5 and 25 cm. A low AFI (< 5 cm) can suggest fetal growth restriction, oligohydramnios, or fetal distress. A high AFI (> 25 cm) can suggest fetal anomalies, polyhydramnios, or maternal diabetes.

Choice B reason: Fetal heart rate is an assessment of the fetal cardiac activity, which is usually monitored by a non-stress test (NST). Fetal heart rate is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal oxygenation and the autonomic nervous system. A normal fetal heart rate is between 110 and 160 beats per minute, with moderate variability and accelerations. A non-reactive fetal heart rate (< 2 accelerations in 20 minutes) can suggest fetal hypoxia, acidosis, or distress.

Choice C reason: Fetal movement is an assessment of the fetal gross body movements, which are usually counted by the mother or observed by ultrasound. Fetal movement is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal activity and the central nervous system. A normal fetal movement is at least 3 movements in 30 minutes. A decreased fetal movement (< 3 movements in 2 hours) can suggest fetal sleep, sedation, or distress.

Choice D reason: Fetal tone is an assessment of the fetal muscle tone, which is usually observed by ultrasound. Fetal tone is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal maturity and the neuromuscular system. A normal fetal tone is at least 1 episode of fetal flexion or extension in 30 minutes. An abnormal fetal tone (absent or hypotonic) can suggest fetal immaturity, anomalies, or distress.

Choice E reason: Placental grade is not an assessment that is included in the fetal biophysical profile (BPP), as it is not a direct measure of fetal well-being, but rather a classification of the placental maturity and calcification. Placental grade is usually evaluated by ultrasound, and it ranges from 0 to 3, with higher grades indicating more calcification and aging. Placental grade can affect the placental function and the fetal growth, but it is not a reliable or consistent indicator of fetal distress.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is in premature labor and is receiving terbutaline. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects that should be reported to the provider?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]

Explanation

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A nurse is caring for a client who is in premature labor and is receiving terbutaline. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects that should be reported to the provider?