A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of Rh0 (D) immunoglobulin. The nurse should understand that the purpose of this injection is to prevent which of the following newborn complications?
Erythroblastosis fetalis
Hypobilirubinemia
Biliary atresia
Transient clotting difficulties
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Erythroblastosis fetalis is the correct answer, as it is a hemolytic disease of the newborn that occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the newborn is Rh-positive, and the maternal antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the newborn's red blood cells, causing anemia, jaundice, and edema. Rh0 (D) immunoglobulin is an injection that prevents the formation of Rh-positive antibodies in the mother, and reduces the risk of erythroblastosis fetalis in the current or subsequent pregnancies.
Choice B reason: Hypobilirubinemia is not the correct answer, as it is a low level of bilirubin in the blood that can cause pale skin, poor feeding, or lethargy. Hypobilirubinemia is not related to the Rh factor or the Rh0 (D) immunoglobulin injection, and it is not a common or serious complication in the newborn.
Choice C reason: Biliary atresia is not the correct answer, as it is a congenital defect of the bile ducts that prevents the flow of bile from the liver to the intestine, causing jaundice, dark urine, and clay-colored stools. Biliary atresia is not related to the Rh factor or the Rh0 (D) immunoglobulin injection, and it is not a preventable complication in the newborn.
Choice D reason: Transient clotting difficulties is not the correct answer, as it is a bleeding disorder that occurs due to the deficiency of vitamin K, which is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors. Transient clotting difficulties is not related to the Rh factor or the Rh0 (D) immunoglobulin injection, and it is preventable by administering vitamin K to the newborn.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: AFI stands for amniotic fluid index, which is a measurement of the amount of amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus. AFI is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal urine output and the placental function. A normal AFI is between 5 and 25 cm. A low AFI (< 5 cm) can suggest fetal growth restriction, oligohydramnios, or fetal distress. A high AFI (> 25 cm) can suggest fetal anomalies, polyhydramnios, or maternal diabetes.
Choice B reason: Fetal heart rate is an assessment of the fetal cardiac activity, which is usually monitored by a non-stress test (NST). Fetal heart rate is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal oxygenation and the autonomic nervous system. A normal fetal heart rate is between 110 and 160 beats per minute, with moderate variability and accelerations. A non-reactive fetal heart rate (< 2 accelerations in 20 minutes) can suggest fetal hypoxia, acidosis, or distress.
Choice C reason: Fetal movement is an assessment of the fetal gross body movements, which are usually counted by the mother or observed by ultrasound. Fetal movement is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal activity and the central nervous system. A normal fetal movement is at least 3 movements in 30 minutes. A decreased fetal movement (< 3 movements in 2 hours) can suggest fetal sleep, sedation, or distress.
Choice D reason: Fetal tone is an assessment of the fetal muscle tone, which is usually observed by ultrasound. Fetal tone is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal maturity and the neuromuscular system. A normal fetal tone is at least 1 episode of fetal flexion or extension in 30 minutes. An abnormal fetal tone (absent or hypotonic) can suggest fetal immaturity, anomalies, or distress.
Choice E reason: Placental grade is not an assessment that is included in the fetal biophysical profile (BPP), as it is not a direct measure of fetal well-being, but rather a classification of the placental maturity and calcification. Placental grade is usually evaluated by ultrasound, and it ranges from 0 to 3, with higher grades indicating more calcification and aging. Placental grade can affect the placental function and the fetal growth, but it is not a reliable or consistent indicator of fetal distress.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Misoprostol is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a prostaglandin E1 analog that causes uterine contractions and cervical ripening. Misoprostol is used for the prevention and treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is less effective and more side effects than oxytocin, which is the first line medication.
Choice B reason: Pitocin is the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a synthetic form of oxytocin, which is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and retraction. Pitocin is used for the induction and augmentation of labor, and the prevention and treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, as it reduces blood loss and enhances hemostasis.
Choice C reason: Hemabate is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a prostaglandin F2 alpha analog that causes uterine contractions and vasoconstriction. Hemabate is used for the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is contraindicated in clients with asthma, hypertension, or cardiac disease, as it can cause bronchospasm, hypertension, or cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice D reason: Methergine is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is an ergot alkaloid that causes sustained uterine contractions and vasoconstriction. Methergine is used for the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is contraindicated in clients with hypertension, preeclampsia, or cardiac disease, as it can cause severe hypertension, cerebrovascular accidents, or myocardial infarction.
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